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Alex73 [517]
3 years ago
9

The expressions in the figure below represent the measures of two angles. Find the value of x. f||g.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
8 0
So before we find the value of x, let us remember that the sum of two angles is 180 degrees. Now, let us solve for x.
180 = 7x + 2x + 36
180 = 9x + 36
180-36 = 9x
144 = 9x <<divide both sides by 9 
and the result would be 16.
Therefore x =16. 
I hope this is the answer that you are looking for. Let me know if you need more help next time.
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If a=3 and b=-4 find the value of (a-ab)<br><br>​
WITCHER [35]
Your answer would be “ (3-34)”
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2 years ago
A poker deck consists of cards ranked 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,J,Q,K,A, (13 different ranks) each in four suits, for a total of 52 dis
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

1) The probability to be given a Poker hand from a Pinochle deck is 0.7943

2) The probability that a hand that could be either a Poker hand or a Pinochle hand was given from a Pinochle deck is 0,3675

Step-by-step explanation:

Letc denote some events:

X = The hand i receive is from a Pinochle deck.

Y = The hand i receive is from a Poker deck

Z = The hand i receive is a Poker hand (from any deck)

Note that Y is the complementary event of X, therefore P(Y) = 1-P(X). Also, if Y is true so is Z, thus

P(Z | Y) = 1

we want to know P(Z | X) in order to resolve item 1)

The first card i receive from the five card hand can be anything, the second one can be anything different from the first card, and there is one copy of that card remaining in the deck, thus, 46 cards from the deck works, from a total of 47. After the second card was given, if it was different from the first card, we will have 2 cards that are copies of the 2 cards i receive, thus, there are, from the 46 remaining cases, only 44 are favourable. For the fourth card we will have 3 cards we dont want to draw, therefore we have 42 cases favourable over 45, and for the last card from a total of 44 cards, only 40 can help us.

With all this information, we have that the probability that a hand dealt from a Pinochle deck is a Poker hand is

P(Z | X) = 46/47* 44/46 * 42/45 * 40/44 = 112/141 = 0.7943

2) Since rach deck has a 1/2 probability of being selected, then

P(X) = P(Y) = 1/2.

In order to compute the probability that i draw a hand that could be either kind from a Pinochle deck, i will calculate first the probability that i draw a 'Pinochle hand' from a poker deck, in other words, if we call W the event that i drew a Pinochle hand, then we want P(W | Y)

Since a Poker deck has 52 cards and only 24 works for us, then P(W | Y) = 24/52 = 6/13 = 0.4615.

Note that P(W | X) = 1

Now, lets calculate what the problem wants, and that is P(X | W∩Z) (The probability to have drawn from a Pinochle deck a hand that could be either Poker or Pinochle. For that we use the Bayes Theorem

P(X | W \cap Z) = \frac{P(W \cap Z |X) * P(X)}{P(W \cap Z |X) * P(X) + P(W \cap Z |Y) * P(Y)} = \frac{P(Z | X) * 1/2}{P(Z |X)*1/2+P(W|Y)*1/2} = \frac{6/26}{6/26+56/141} = \frac{423}{1151} = 0.3675

[ Note that if X is given, then W always holds, thats why p(W∩Z|X) = P(Z|X). In a similar way P(W∩Z|Y) = P(W|Y), because given Y, Z always happens (a hand given from a Poker deck is always a poker hand). ]

We conclude that the probability that a hand that can be from any deck is in fact given from a Pinochle deck is 0.3675.

3 0
3 years ago
What is 2p + (3q + 2) = (2p + 3q) + 2
yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

associative property of addition

Step-by-step explanation:

2p + (3q + 2) = (2p + 3q) + 2

There are no terms that can be combined since there are no like terms

We are using the associative property to move the parentheses from one  group of terms to the other.

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3 years ago
Rationalise the denominator
NARA [144]

Answer:

sqrt(3) /3

Step-by-step explanation:

1 / sqrt(3)

Multiply the top and bottom by sqrt(3)

1/ sqrt(3) * sqrt(3)/ sqrt(3)

sqrt(3) /  sqrt(3)*sqrt(3)

sqrt(3) /3

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2 years ago
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Some paint is made by mixing 2 cans of white paint for every 5 cans of red
Allushta [10]
5.2

Explanation in the photo

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