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3 years ago

If property is inherited by a taxpayer,

Business

1 answer:

Inga [223]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Correct option is A.

In general, the basis to the recipient is the fair market value at the decedent's date of death.

Explanation:

If property is inherited by a taxpayer, In general, the basis to the recipient is the fair market value at the decedent's date of death.

As per the the law when property is transferred on account of death, then basis to the recipient is the fair market value at the time of death of decedent's.

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Respond to the following comments:

MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Comment for statement A - The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the appropriate discount rate must still be specified.

Comment for statement B - There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.

Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.

Explanation:

“I like the IRR rule. I can use it to rank projects without having to specify a discount rate”

The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the appropriate discount rate must still be specified.

“I like the payback rule. As long as the minimum payback period is short, the rule makes sure that the company takes no borderline projects. That reduces risk”

There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.

Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.

5 0

4 years ago

Sweet night :) sleep tight

Softa [21]

Answer:

good night

Explanation:

sweet dreams :)

3 0

3 years ago

Kunkel Company makes two products and uses a conventional costing system. A single plantwide predetermined overhead rate is comp

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Total number of direct labor hours= (1,000*2) + (2,000*7)= 16,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,200,000 / 16,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $75 per direct labor hour

Now, we allocate overhead to each unit and calculate the unitary cost:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Mercon:

Allocated MOH= 75*2= $150

Unitary cost= 150 + 8 + 10= $168

Wurcon:

Allocated MOH= 75*7= $525

Unitary cost= 525 + 6 + 11= $542

Finally, using activity-based costing:

Mercon Wurcon Total

Engineering design time (in hours) 1,000 1,000 2,000

Direct labor-hours 2,000 14,000 16,000

Engineering= 600,000 / 2,000= $300 per design hour

Direct labor= 600,000 / 16,000= $37.5 per direct labor hour

Mercon:

Allocated MOH= 37.5*2 + 300*1= $375

Unitary cost= 375 + 8 + 10= $393

Wurcon:

Allocated MOH= 37.5*7 + 300*0.5= $412.5

Unitary cost= 412.5 + 6 + 11= $429.5

3 0

3 years ago

Why are financial intermediaries willing to engage in information collection activities when investors in financial instruments

d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

C. Banks make private loans; their conclusions on who is creditworthy are not made public.

Explanation:

Investors in financial instruments who engage in information collection face a free-rider problem, which means other investors may be able to benefit from their information without paying for it.

Individual investors, therefore, have inadequate incentives to devote resources to gather information about borrowers who issue securities.

4 0

4 years ago

QUESTION 11 Given the following information, calculate the equity dividend rate for this investment: first-year NOI: $18,750; be

Alja [10]

Answer: D. 2.2%

Explanation: Equity Dividend Rate is calculated by dividing the Before Tax Cash Flow by the Acquisition price. If you need the answer in percentage form, you then multiply by 100.

Here, before-tax cash flow = $11,440

Acquisition price = $520,000

So Equity Dividend Rate = $\frac{11440}{520000}$ X 100

Equity Dividend Rate = 2.2%

In this question, you do not need the Net Operating Income (NOI). You only need the NOI if the Before Tax Cash Flow is not given and the debt service payment is. If this is the case, you subtract the debt service payment from the NOI to get the Before Tax Cash Flow.

4 0

4 years ago