Answer:
Longly will receive $1,817.43 from selling the bond.
Explanation:
As the coupon rate is 8%; we have annual coupon payment = 2,000 x 8% = $160.
The price of the bond Longly will receive is equal to the present value of 20 annual coupon payment plus the present value of $2,000 face value repayment in 20 years time; with the two streams of cash flow discounting at the market rate at the date of issuing 9%; which is calculated as:
[ ( 160/9%) x [ 1 - 1.09^(-20) ] ] + ( 2,000 / 1.09^20 ) = $1,817.43.
So, the answer is $1,817.43.
Answer:
undervalued assets an liabilities by 50,000
Explanation:
The financial statement for the fiscal year ended on December 31th, 2012
will have the following mistake:
Liabilities are undervalued by 50,000
Cash wll be undervalued by 50,000
As the note payable is not recorded neither the cash receipts from the loan.
Because this transaction is missing, we are not doing a correct representation of reality. This account will be undervalued.
Answer:
The answer is 9.85%
Explanation:
The number of periods N = 9years(10 years minus 1 year ago)
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = ?
Present value of the bond (PV) = $950.70
Future value of the bond(FV) = $1,000
Annual payment (PMT) = $90 (9% x $1,000)
Using a financial calculator to solve the problem ( BA II plus Texas instruments):
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = 9.85%
