Answer:
$1.01 billion
Explanation:
The computation of the amount for advertising based on projected sales is shown below:
= Advertising expense ÷ sales × projected sales in next year
= $0.8 billion ÷ $15 billion × $19 billion
= $1.01 billion
First we find out the advertise to sales ratio after than we multiplied it with the projected sales in next year in order to find out the advertising based on projected sales
The balance of the manufacturer overhead account is Credit of $30,000, overapplied.
- credit of $30,000, overapplied.
<h3>Underapplied Overhead vs. Overapplied Overhead</h3>
Underapplied overhead is the opposite of overapplied overhead. Overapplied overhead occurs when expenses incurred are actually less than what a company accounts for in its budget. This means that a company comes in under budget and achieves a lower amount of overhead costs during the accounting period.
Therefore, the correct answer is as given above.
learn more about overhead account from here:
brainly.com/question/26396695
It is a <u>False </u>statment to say that subsection (D) of section 10 of the Federal Arbitration Act mandate that the court review the merits of every construction of a contract. The act speaks to Arbitration.
<h3>What does the Federal Arbitration Act of the United States of America say?</h3>
Subsection (D) of section 10 of the above stated Act state that the United States Court would vacate an award upon application by any of the party to the arbitration:
<em>Where the arbitrators exceeded their power or so imperfectly executed them that a mutual, final and definite award upon the subject matter submitted was not made.</em>
See the link below for more about Arbitration:
brainly.com/question/1139969
Answer: Consumer share risk with company.
Explanation:
Insurance involves the sharing of risk between a client and his insurer. In insurance the insurer takes a large portion of the risk while the client covers the rest of risk payment.
Explanation:
1) Famous celebrities and the people with lots of money are often seen with workers round them for their household chores/tasks. Although they are paying money for the work they could have done by themselves but if we analyze closely, they are actually taking advantage of the opportunity cost. The time when they were suppose to do the household work, now they are performing other task in that time which will be giving them much greater economic benefit, taking advantage of the concept of opportunity cost. For example, Cristiano Ronaldo can focus on his workout and daily exercise instead of making daily meals for himself, so he should have hired someone to do the meal work for him while he perform his workout which will help him on the field and will earn him much money.
2) Yes, it is possible for 2 countries to benefit from trade as a whole because they can get into an agreement by allowing free trade between the countries, for example, both the countries could agree that all the trade which will be executed between them would be tax free and no duties will be paid on them. This way the trade numbers would increase and industrialization would take place to meet the export/import orders. On the contrary, trading individually can be not so beneficial because there will be no free trade agreements between individuals i.e. no free lunches, that is why it could cost individuals much more than they can make money out of it.
3) One of the main reasons to oppose policies that restrict trade among the nations is that GDP. GDP is a measure of growth in any country, therefore when there will be no trade among countries, it would result in less productions of goods and services which which lead to less industrialization, which then will result to low employment and more unemployment, ultimately resulting in very low growth for any country and since growth is the only way forward for any nation, economists oppose policies that restrict trade among countries/nations.
I hope this detailed answer of mine help the poster.
Thank You and Good Luck.