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Oxana [17]
4 years ago
15

In an appraisal interview, the rating manager should never ________. take any responsibility for an employee's performance assis

t the employee in setting goals refuse to take some responsibility for an employee's performance if the supervisor neglected to provide regular performance feedback refuse to discuss negative employee performance as a defense against a possible lawsuit
Business
1 answer:
Sindrei [870]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": refuse to take some responsibility for an employee's performance if the supervisor neglected to provide regular performance feedback.

Explanation:

Performance appraisals are evaluations managers make of employees to find out if they are meeting the expectations of their duties. These tests aim to measure the efficiency of employees in their day-to-day activities at work, The appraisals have a standard method of rating workers according to their tasks and position in the firm and based on that standard feedback is provided.

<em>Supervisors are in charge of giving workers immediate suggestions on how workers could improve their operations but if they have not done that resulting in poor performance of an employee, the managers conducting the tests must accept part of the responsibility for that to happen relies on the managers.</em>

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Property rights are
Vlad1618 [11]

Property rights are: b. The right that individuals or firms have to buy or sell their property, and the exclusive use of their property

These properties can either be owned by the government, an organization or an individual. The right to property has four properties or rights:

Good’s usage

Make money from the goods

Sell the good to others

Property rights administration

7 0
3 years ago
What is the payback (in years) of a project with the following cash flows? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash Flow -$100 40 40 80 Group of answer
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

2.25 years

Explanation:

Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows

Please check the attached image for a table showing how the payback period was calculated

6 0
3 years ago
Westland College uses a 10% discount rate and the total cost approach to capital budgeting analysis. Both alternatives are expec
DiKsa [7]

Answer: hello your question is incomplete attached below is the complete question

answer :  $(1,236,495). ( A )

Explanation:

Attached below is the Calculation of the net present value of the alternative of overhauling the present system

The value of Net present value = ∑ present value

                                       = -300000 - 200000 - 906950 + 77055 + 93400

                                      = - 1,236,495

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a control problem related to segregation of duties? a. Bob order office supplies and deposits the comp
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

c. Steve records receivables and writes off bad debts.

Explanation:

Segregation of duties is an internal control measure implemented by an organization to reduce the risk of fraud or error. It is the practice of separating duties to ensures mistakes, whether deliberate or not, do not happen without being detected by some else.  In the segregation of duties, one person does not control transactions from start to finish.

Steve's role is of receiving inventories, and writing off bad debts poses a risk to the business. The two transactions relate to debt management. There is a likelihood of Steve interfering with accounts to records them as bad debts, yet he has received payments

6 0
3 years ago
Jiminy's Cricket Farm issued a 30-year, 7.8 percent semiannual bond 5 years ago. The bond currently sells for 92 percent of its
asambeis [7]

Answer:

Pretax cost of debt is 8.58%

after tax cost of debt is 5.15%

After tax cost of debt of 5.15% is more relevant because that reflects the true cost of debt bearing in mind that debt has a tax advantage(tax shield).

Explanation:

The pretax cost of debt can be computed using the rate formula in excel as follows:

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of coupons the bond would pay i.e 25years(years to maturity)*2=50

pmt is the semiannual coupon interest=$1000*7.8%*6/12=$39

pv is the present price of the bond=$1000*92%=$920

fv is the face value of $1000

=rate(50,39,-920,1000)=4.29%

Annual yield=4.29%*2=8.58%

after tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)

t is the tax rate of 40%

after tax cost of debt=8.58%*(1-0.4)=5.15%

6 0
3 years ago
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