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Cerrena [4.2K]
3 years ago
10

A firm recently issued $1,000 par value, 20-year bonds with a coupon rate of 9%. Coupon interest payments will be paid semi-annu

ally. The bonds sold at par value, but the firm paid flotation costs amounting to 5% of par value. The firm has a tax rate of 21%. What is the firm's after-tax cost of debt for these bonds?
Business
1 answer:
Valentin [98]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

cost of debt 0.0748421 = 7.48%

Explanation:

\frac{r(1-t)}{(1-f)} = $after tax cost of debt

The flotation cost makes the cost increase as we did not receive the whole amount but a diminished portion.

Also, the cost is decrease as are tax deductible making the interest expense to provide a tax shield.

pretax cost of debt =

0.09 x (1 -0.21) / (1 - 0.05) = 0,0748421

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Other things equal, a firm will have to pay a higher coupon rate on its subordinated debentures than on its second mortgage bond
spin [16.1K]

The statement "Other things equal, a firm will have to pay a higher coupon rate on its subordinated debentures than on its second mortgage bonds."  is True

This is further explained below.

<h3>What is a Mortgage?</h3>

Generally, MBS stands for mortgage-backed securities, which are bonds that are backed by mortgages and other types of real estate loans.

They are produced when a number of these loans, which often have qualities that are comparable to one another, are pooled together.

A company that operates for the purpose of making a profit and is often structured as a partnership in order to carry out the provision of professional services, such as legal or accounting work, is referred to as a firm.

The maximization of profits is the overarching goal of the business, according to the theory of the firm.

In conclusion, It is correct to say that, "all things being equal, a company will be required to pay a greater coupon rate on its subordinated debentures than on its second mortgage bonds."

Read more about mortgage bonds

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8 0
1 year ago
Another term for trade balance​
cestrela7 [59]

Answer:

Another term for trade balance would be trade deficit.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The value of what you owe minus what you owe is called
aliina [53]
Hey there!

I think you meant to type "value of what you <em>own</em> minus what you owe". Let me know if this assumption isn't correct, though I don't know what the value of what you owe is besides... ya know, what you owe. 

The value of what you own is called you assets. This can include anything of value that you own, particularly your pricier possessions. Think of a vintage family heirloom or a highly–priced article of clothing. Assets, though, includes the value <em>everything</em> that you own that you could possibly put a price tag on if you were certain someone would buy it. 

What you owe is called your liability. This is basically any debt that you owe anyone, whether it be your buddy who footed your lunch bill the other day when you didn't have enough cash or a student loan you used to pay for college. 

Your assets minus your liability is called your net worth. This is basically what you are worth in total. This makes sense, since any debt you owe will be taken out of the amount that you are worth or any money that you have.

Net worth will be your answer. 

Hope this helped you out! :-)
4 0
3 years ago
An omitted variable is a variable that: 1. is purposely left out as it does not aid an economic analysis. 2. is removed from a s
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is 4

Explanation:

OVB stands for the Omitted Variable bias, is the term which is defined as the any variable which is not involves or included as the independent variable in the regression, which could influence or impact the variable that is dependent.

From the above options, the omitted variable is the variable which is defined as the which has been left out, if involves, will state the reason why the variable will be considered in the study are correlated to each other.

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15. If, in the economy described, government spending increases by $200 million, what will be the associated change in equilibri
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

$200 (million)

Explanation:

If the government spending increases by $200 million, then associated change in equilibrium income will be $ 200 million, assuming that Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 1

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