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Rudik [331]
3 years ago
5

PLEASE SHOW YOUR WORKING OUT THANKS

Mathematics
2 answers:
katen-ka-za [31]3 years ago
7 0
4years * 0.023 percent * 500 =
2000 * 0.023 = £46
Crank3 years ago
7 0

The answer is 4years * 0.023 percent * 500 =

2000 * 0.023 = £46

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Chips numbered 1 through 80 are shuffled in a basket. One chip is randomly selected.
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1/16

multiples 15,30,45,60, and 75 making 5/80 then you simplify to 1/16
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Consider a game in which a participant pays $2 to roll a die. The participant receives $3 if they roll a 1 (i.E. They go up by a
Sauron [17]

Answer:

The expected monetary value of a single roll is $1.17.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample space of rolling a die is:

S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6}

The probability of rolling any of the six numbers is same, i.e.

P (1) = P (2) = P (3) = P (4) = P (5) = P (6) = \frac{1}{6}

The expected pay for rolling the numbers are as follows:

E (X = 1) = $3

E (X = 2) = $0

E (X = 3) = $0

E (X = 4) = $0

E (X = 5) = $0

E (X = 6) = $4

The expected value of an experiment is:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)

Compute the expected monetary value of a single roll as follows:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)\\=[E(X=1)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=2)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=3)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[E(X=4)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=5)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=6)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=[3\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[4\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=1.17

Thus, the expected monetary value of a single roll is $1.17.

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3 years ago
Simplify the following: (9x - 7) - (5x + 10)
lianna [129]
(9x - 7) - (5x + 10 )
2x - 15x
- 13x
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How is a kite always a quadrilateral?
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer: A kite is always a quadrilateral because quadrilaterals have 4 sides

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Write an equation for the n term of the arithmetic sequence shown below, then find the
marysya [2.9K]

Step-by-step explanation:

Tn= a+(n-1)d

= 123 +(70-1)7

=123+(69)7

=123+483

=606 answer

6 0
3 years ago
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