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LiRa [457]
3 years ago
15

Caesar was able to march his army into Rome because he had what

History
1 answer:
const2013 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Julius Caesar was able to march his army into Rome because he had support from the people.

When his political governorship in the Gaul and Ilyricum expired, the Roman Senate ordered Caesar to disband his army and return to Rome. By this time, he had already become a hero for the common people and had proposed several political reforms. Thus, when he crossed the Rubicon, the common people supported him and approved his actions.

Caesar crossing the Rubicon river with his army (a capital crime according to Roman law) precipitated the Roman Civil War, leading to him becoming emperor-dictator for life.

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Which is NOT an issue still being resolved by the Palestome and Israeli conflict?
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Answer:

sovereignty of Jerusalem as one of the holiest of sites for the three major religions of the world

Explanation:

i found this as something that still needs to be resolved, so i hope its correct

7 0
3 years ago
Which word best describes Soviet foreign policy during the Cold War? A. Isolationist B. Expansionist C. Colonialist D. Terrorist
drek231 [11]
I believe the correct answer is B.
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1. Which of the following was a goal of the New Deal? Select all that apply. (
ahrayia [7]

The goals of the New Deal include the following:

  • Bring relief to the poor and unemployed relief for the needy .
  • Enact new laws making stock speculation easier.
  • Enact permanent reforms to prevent future economic depressions.

<h3>What is New Deal?</h3>

This include programs and projects which were initiated to restore posterity to the Americans between 1933 to 1939.

The aim of the New deal is listed above amd is the most appropriate choice.

Read more about New deal here  brainly.com/question/936437

4 0
2 years ago
Laissez-faire policy during the gilded age, in which government let businesses function without regulation, reflected the consti
Naddik [55]

Limited government

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3 0
3 years ago
(20 points :) ) Which claims about the declaration of the rights of man and the declaration of independence are true? (select al
solmaris [256]

The correct answers are: the declaration of independence speaks of a divine creator and the declaration of the rights of man speaks of a supreme being. Both documents drew on the "natural law" philosophy of John Locke.

Indeed, the Declaration of independence explicitly mentions the Creator in the preamble:

“"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.”

The Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen mentions the Supreme being in its preamble as well:

“In consequence whereof, the National Assembly recognises and declares, in the presence and under the auspices of the Supreme Being, the following Rights of Man and of the Citizen.”

Finally, although both documents draw on the natural law philosophy of John Locke, the American version is more traditional in that it considers that such rights are given to humans by a deity or transcendent being of the same kind while the French version is more secular.

8 0
3 years ago
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