It should be noted that the inefficient allocation if resources is market failure.
<h3>What is market failure? </h3>
It should be noted that market failure simply means the inefficient distribution of goods and services.
Market failure is the the inability of a market to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of society.
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Answer:
The current ratio is 2.98
Explanation:
total current assets = cash + receivables + inventory + other current assets
= $102 million + 94 million + 182 million + 18 million
= $396 million
total current liabilities = accounts payable + current portion of long term debt
= $98 million + $35 million
= $133 million
current ratio = current assets/current liabilities
= [$396 million]/[$133 million]
= 2.98
Therefore, The current ratio is 2.98
The answer is c
i hope that helped
Answer:
12.38% decrease
Explanation:
Given the following parameters
6%
Number of years = 12
Market yield I= 6 === 4.5
Present Value = 916.16 == 1045.59
PMT (annuity payment) = 50 (5%x1000)
Future value = 1000
Therefore, to solve for the percentage change, we have in the price of this bond in this situation, we have (916.16-1045.59) / 1045.59 = -0.1238
Hence, 12.38% decrease is the percentage change in the price of this bond if the market yield rises to 6% from the current yield of 4.5%,
Answer:
The amount of fees that Jill will pay this year=$248.20
Explanation:
Expense ratio is a measure of how much fees that fund management firms charge their clients for their investments services. These fees cover administrative and operational costs. In our case, the expense ratio will be expressed as the fees that Jill will pay as a portion of the total amount she invested. The expense ratio can be expressed as shown;
ER=C/A
where;
ER=expense ratio
C=total funds cost
A=total funds assets
In our case;
ER=0.17%=0.17/100=0.0017
C=unknown to be determined
A=$146,000
replacing;
C=ER×A
C=0.0017×146,000=$248.20
The amount of fees that Jill will pay this year=$248.20
