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daser333 [38]
3 years ago
7

A U.S. firm sells merchandise today to a British company for £150,000. The current exchange rate is $1.55/£ , the account is pay

able in three months, and the firm chooses to avoid any hedging techniques designed to reduce or eliminate the risk of changes in the exchange rate. The U.S. firm is at risk today of a loss if:A) the exchange rate changes to $1.52/£.B) the exchange rate changes to $1.58/£.C) the exchange rate doesn't change.D) all of the above
Business
1 answer:
Andre45 [30]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b

Explanation:

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A company's fixed operating costs are $420,000, its variable costs are $3.20 per unit, and the product's sales price is $4.65. W
Hatshy [7]

Answer: The volume of sales that will result in a break-even point is 289,655 units

Explanation: For any organization or company to break-even means its total costs is just the same as its total revenue. This means no profit, and no loss either. Or better still, profit/loss equals zero.

The equation to determine the profit or otherwise of an organization is given as Revenue minus Cost. That is, the sales figure should exceed the cost of production, and the excess would be the profit. If on the other hand the cost of production exceeds the sales figure, then the equation would result in a negative figure which simply means a loss has been recorded.

In the question above, the costs have been given as;

Fixed cost = 420000

Variable cost = 3.2y

Total cost = 420000 + 3.2y

Where y is the number of units produced.

Also the revenue has been given as 4.65y

That is, sales price multiplied by number of units produced/sold

The profit is given as revenue minus cost while the break-even point is given as revenue equals cost, that is;

420000 + 3.2y = 4.65y

Collect like terms and you have;

420000 = 4.65y - 3.2y

420000 = 1.45y

Divide both sides by 1.45

289655.172 = y

y ≈ 289,655

Therefore the sales volume that will result in a break even point is 289,655 units

7 0
3 years ago
During its most recent fiscal year, Dover, Inc. had total sales of $3,200,000. Contribution margin amounted to $1,500,000 and pr
ANEK [815]

Answer:

Fixed costs= 1,100,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

During its most recent fiscal year, Dover, Inc. had total sales of $3,200,000. Contribution margin amounted to $1,500,000 and pretax income was $400,000.

We need to reverse engineer the income statement to determine the total fixed costs. We know that the pretax income is the difference between the total contribution margin and the fixed costs.

Pretax= total contribution margin - fixed costs

400,000= 1,500,000 - FC

Fixed costs= 1,500,000 - 400,000

Fixed costs= 1,100,000

5 0
3 years ago
Money that can be easily divided into smaller units of value has the characteristics of
Anna007 [38]
A) Divisibility can easily be divided into smaller value.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that Guardian Company uses a periodic inventory system and has these account balances: Purchases $500,000; Purchase Retur
romanna [79]

Answer:

Net purchases:

= Purchases - Purchase Returns and Allowances - Purchase Discount

= 500,000 - 14,000 - 9,000

= $477,000

Cost of goods sold:

= Net purchase + Freight-in

= 477,000 + 15,000

= $492,000

3 0
3 years ago
Delta Company sells bells to customers for $1 each. The variable cost to manufacture the bells is 10 cents. If the rattle depart
ale4655 [162]

Answer:

Option C. $0.11

Option D. $0.95

Explanation:

As we know that the Transfer Price is set at either selling price for an outside market or variable cost plus opportunity cost if the product sold is to internal market present within the organization (Inter group or inter division sales).

However, the division can still charge upper limit price to the division which is $1 market price of the product.

Upper limit = $1

As it is given that the selling of the additional units will be among divisions which means its inter division market. Hence the lower limit will be used here.

Lower Limit = Variable cost + opportunity cost

Here

Variable cost is $10 cents

And

Opportunity cost will be zero here as the division will be using its excess capacity to sell to the other division, so there is no opportunity cost.

So, by putting values, we have:

Lower Limit = $0.1 - $0 = $0.1

Upper limit = $1

Thus the transfer price set for each bell can be between $1 and $0.1. So the $0.11 and $0.95 falls between these range and both are correct options here.

4 0
3 years ago
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