Answer:
Explanation:Napoleon caused revolutions in Latin America indirectly. His overthrow of the Spanish monarchy in Spain led to the Spanish-controlled colonies being ruled by Napoleon's brother Joseph as part of the French Empire. The colonists, especially the criollos, were already questioning whether the Spanish had the right to govern them or whether they should assert independence. However, most colonists could agree that there was no way that France had any right to govern them. Additionally, Spain's defeat by France meant that Spain could not expend as many soldiers and strength to repress any revolutions there. This made it an ideal time for a revolt.
However, Napoleon did not support or directly influence any of the three major Latin American revolutionaries (Bolivar, San Martin, and Padre Hidalgo).
The indies was the common European name for asia
The Battle of Antietam was the bloodiest one-day battle of the Civil War, with over 25,000 casualties total. It was a Union victory, which raised the confidence of Union troops. After a long winning streak, the Confederate troops lost and were forced back.
Answer:
Landowners
Explanation:
In the Time of Julius Caesar he had planned to make the reform to benefit himself and the government rather than other people such as landowners and farmers. In the reforms he had not given the power to himself but governments have given the power to landowners because he was on crack
I believe the answer you are looking for is Tributary.
