Answer: (2) Demand-side market failure
Explanation:
The demand side market failure is one of the type of market effect that basically occur due to the production of the negative response and the effect by the various types of marketing techniques like surveys and the focus groups.
The market failure demand side is one of the type of economical situation in which the customers are willing to pay for the specific products and the services in the market which is not fully capture.
According to the given question, the demand- side market failure is one of the example that best illustrating the given situation. Therefore, Option (2) is correct answer.
Answer:
The contribution margin ratio is 35%
Explanation:
The formula for contribution is given below:
Contribution margin = revenue − variable costs.
Contribution margin ratio is given as:
(Sales – variable expenses) ÷ Sales
In this case,contribution is given as 1000*($20-$13), in other words selling price per unit minus variable cost multiplied by number of units sold.
Contribution is $7000
contribution margin ratio =$7000/($20*1000)
=0.35 or 35%
The implies that Hollis Industries makes a contribution of 35% per unit of output sold,hence, the contribution contributes towards covering fixed costs and making profit overall
Answer:
D. have separate cost allocation rates for each activity identified by the company CORRECT
There will be activity cost pool which, will be distribute among the product using different cost driver like machien hours, direct labor hours or other.
Explanation:
A. have the same cost allocation system as plantwide and departmental cost allocation systems
NO If it was, then it would not have a different name
B. have no cost allocation rates for each activity identified by the company
If we don't have rates to distrubte cost then, the allocation will be arbitrary
C. have combined cost allocation rates for each activity identified by the company
each should have different base cost driver if not, then they aren't different and should be combined.
Answer:
Option C Not recoverability test but fair value test
Explanation:
The reason is that the standard on impairment IAS 36 Impairment of Assets says that the assets with indefinite life must tested for impairment every accounting year end. The test only includes whether the fair value of the asset has been decreased or not. This test is helpful by asking questions that asks about the decrease in the life of the asset due to a new legislation, the performance of the asset is fallen (oil is less extracted now than before because the oil is not reachable), etc. The standard does not permits to use Recoverability test as it will come later once the company is sure that the asset fair value has been decreased.
The most cost effective way for John to buy a house in the suburbs is:
a.Move to the suburbs and rent a house for one year before purchasing a home.
This is to test the waters. During this time, he has to acclimatize himself into living in a new environment. He has to discover the pros and cons of living in the suburbs compared to living in the city like travel time in going to work, etc.
If after a year, he finds its more beneficial to live in the suburbs, then he can buy a house there. On the other hand, if he finds it costly to live in the suburbs compared to living in the city, he simply has to pay the necessary rent and utility bills, pack up his bags, and go home.
