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Savatey [412]
3 years ago
7

Multiply the following 39(45)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1755

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply put these two numbers into a calculator

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In a valid probability distribution, each probability must be between 0 and 1, inclusive, and the probabilities must add up to 1
lora16 [44]

The value of x is 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

In a probability distribution, probability should be between 0  and 1. The probabilities add up to one.

Given probabilities are:

\frac{1}{10}, \frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{2}, x

The sum of these probabilities will be equal to 1.

So,

To find x,

\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{2}+x = 1\\\frac{1+2+5}{10}+x=1\\\frac{8}{10}+x=1\\x= 1- \frac{8}{10}\\x = 1- \frac{4}{5}\\x= \frac{5-4}{5}\\x=\frac{1}{5}

The value of x is 1/5

Keywords: Probability, Distribution

Learn more about probability at:

  • brainly.com/question/2821386
  • brainly.com/question/2860697

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
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The quotient of any two numbers, with the condition that the denominator is different from zero
elena-s [515]

Answer:

The quotient of any two numbers can be written as:

A/B

such that:

A, B ∈ {R}

Where {R} is the set of all real numbers.

But we also have the restriction that the denominator, B in this case, must be different than zero.

So we can define the set:

{R \ {0}}

As the set of all the real numbers minus the element 0.

So in this set we do not have the number zero, so now we can write our expression as:

A/B

A ∈ {R}, B ∈ {R \ {0}}

3 0
3 years ago
( I'm new at functions ;_; )<br> What is the value of the function y = 2x + 3 ⁢when x=−1 ?
Natali [406]
Answer: y=1
Explanation: all you have to do is plug in “-1” where x is. So you get: y=2(-1) +3.
Simplify and you have -2+3 which is 1

Hope this helped and pls mark as brainliest!

~ Luna
3 0
3 years ago
HELP
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

srry think its to late

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Reduce the following lambda-calculus term to the normal form. Show all intermediate steps, with one beta reduction at a time. In
QveST [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Reduction to normal from using lambda-reduction:

The given lambda - calculus terms is, (λf. λx. f (f x)) (λy. Y * 3) 2

For the term, (λy. Y * 3) 2, we can substitute the value to the function.

Therefore, applying beta- reduction on "(λy. Y * 3) 2" will return 2*3= 6

So the term becomes,(λf. λx. f (f x)) 6

The first term, (λf. λx. f (f x)) takes a function and an argument, and substitute the argument in the function.

Here it is given that it is possible to substitute the resulting multiplication in the result.

Therefore by applying next level beta - reduction, the term becomes f(f(f(6)) (f x)) which is in normal form.

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3 years ago
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