Answer: Option B
Explanation: Opportunity cost refers to the of loss of profit when an individual or firm chooses one alternative over other.
The statement in the given case, depicts the opportunity cost one has to pay of using the scarce resources that could be sued on different alternatives.
The lunch is never free depicts that one could have used it in other alternatives that may have produced some economic benefits.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Answer:
1. b. $896.00
2. c. $317.20
3. a. $578.80
4. b. $67.20
5. d. $4.80
Explanation:
1. WIlliam's total earnings
40 hours at $16 = $640
8 hours at $32 = $256
Total = $896
2. WIlliam's total deductions
Income Tax $200
United Fund deduction $50
Social security tax (6% * $896) $3.76
Medicare tax (1.5% * $896) <u>$13.44</u>
Total <u>$317.20</u>
3. William's net pay
= Total earnings - Total deductions
= $896 - $317.20
= $578.80
Cash Paid is $578.80
4. Employers FICA based on Williams pay
Social Security and Medicare taxes = 7.5% * $869 = $67.20
5. Employers Federal Unemployment based on Williams pay
Federal unemployment tax = 0.8% * $600 = $4.80
Answer:
The correct answer is option a.
Explanation:
Minimum wages can be defined as the minimum level of wages that an employer is supposed to pay to workers for their work. It cannot be reduced through an individual contract or collective agreement.
Minimum wages are fixed above the equilibrium level of wages. At this level, the demand for labor is lower while supply is more because of high wages. This creates surplus labor in the market.
Answer:
AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery
No No
The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.
The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.
The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.
For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)
Explanation:
Capacity ratio is a comparison of the number of working days in the budgeted period as well as the actual number of working days in the same period.
<h3>What is the c
apacity ratio?</h3>
Your information is incomplete. Therefore, an overview of the capacity ratio will be given.
Capacity ratio defines to show the capacity. The capacity utilization ratio simply measures whether the total direct labor hours worked in a production cost center in a period was either greater or less than what was budgeted.
It is calculated as:
= (Actual direct labor hours worked/budgeted direct labor hours) × 100%.
Learn more about capacity ratio on:
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