In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset would be compared to:
under U.S. GAAP Fair value and under IFRS recoverable amount.
Explanation:
In US GAAP, the cost of financial asset depreciation is calculated as the difference between carried value and fair value; in compliance with IFRS, a loss of financial asset impairment is defined as the difference between carrying value and the percentage of the asset that can be recouped.
In compliance with US-based ASC 360-10-35-20. The recovery of a historically identified impairment loss (or "restoration") is forbidden because an item is deemed to have a new cost base after an impairment loss has been registered.
Answer:
- $140
- $14,140
Explanation:
1. First find the net amount amount the company borrowed in April:
= Cash balance to be maintained + Loan repayment - Budgeted end of April balance
= 37,000 + 1,000 - 24,000
= $14,000
Interest = 14,000 * 12%/ 12 months
= $140
2. Financing effect:
= Amount borrowed + Interest
= 14,000 + 140
= $14,140
Answer:
$225,400
Explanation:
The computation of total contribution margin under variable costing is shown below:-
Sales (4900 × $88) $431,200
Less:Variable cost
Direct material (4900 × $12) ($58,800)
Direct labor (4900 × 23) ($112,700)
Variable manufacturing overhead
(4900 × 2) ($9,800)
Variable selling and administrative
expenses (4900 × $5) ($24,500)
Total variable expenses ($205,800)
Contribution margin $225,400
Therefore the total contribution margin under variable costing is $225,400
Answer: forces banks with greater risk to maintain more capital.
Explanation:
The Basel Accord are a set of regulations in the banking industry that enables the proper functioning of banks, if these regulations for banks are strictly adhered to, banks would rarely have problems of total failure which leads to the bank closing up.
The Basel Accord is named after the city of Basel in Switzerland where the meetings took place, the Accord majored on the minimum financial requirements of banks.
Answer:
Explanation:
The alimony given is a tax-deductible expense for the person paying the alimony if a divorce is finalized before 2019 and before Jan 31, 2018.
Alimony payments made for divorce implemented after Jan 31, 2018, are said not to be tax-deductible with regards to the amended law.
Therefore in the scenario presented, Nancy pays alimony to Nathan will be tax-deductible income to him because the divorce was finalized in the year 2016 as it is before Jan 31, 2018.
If they have been divorced and still they continue to stay together during 2016 and 2017, then alimony payments are tax-deductible.
Had it been that they have not filed for divorce, only that they are separated but however still jointly live together, then they both file for tax return jointly or separately together due to the sense that they are considered as a married couple for the entire year.
In a case whereby the couple is divorced in 2019, then alimony payments received are not tax-deductible with regards to the current law.
