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gtnhenbr [62]
3 years ago
14

Explain the law of one price and the theory of purchasing power parity. Why doesn't purchasing power parity explain all exchange

rate movements in the short run? What factors determine long-run exchange rates?
Business
1 answer:
Masteriza [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The law of one price establishes that the product or service price will remain the same for all the entire world.

Explanation:

The law of one price establishes that the product or service price will remain the same for all the entire world. It is necessary to take into account for this law that the price of the currency  needs to be also the same and that the price of the product or service would not be affected by other factors such as additional buyers or sellers in the market.

On the other hand the purchasing power parity refers to the idea of an equilibrium of currencies in exchange rates, it means that the power for purchasing will be represented in the same way in the different countries, and it is important to mention that this theory is base in the law of one price.

The  the long run equilibrium is an idea that in theory represents all the equilibrium of prices, quantities, and markets in general; on the other hand, for the short run equilibrium there are some limitations in which the market cannot be explained as properly and fully balanced.

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Read 2 more answers
Select the items below which must be adjusted to the book balance: ________
Alona [7]

Answer:

b. Book Error

e. Interest earned on the Checking account

f. Collections of Accounts receivable by the bank.

Explanation:

Items which must be adjusted to the book balance as this question is concerned are <u>Book Error</u>, <u>Interest earned on the Checking account</u> & <u>Collections of Accounts receivable by the bank.</u>

These above items require adjustment in book balance to compute the adjusted book balance.

6 0
2 years ago
Toy Town is considering a new toy that will cost $49,100 in startup costs. The toy is expected to produce cash flows of $47,500
Tasya [4]

Answer:

NPV with a 14.9% discount rate: 6,329.06

The toy should be produced as the NPV is positive.

IRR = 26.65%

Explanation:

First we calculate for the NPV using the given discount rate of 14.9%

We will calculate the present value of each year cash inflow:

\frac{inflow}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Year 1 cash inflow: 47,500.00

time   1.00

rate  0.149

\frac{47500}{(1 + 0.149)^{1} } = PV  

PV   41,340.30

Year 2 cash inflow:  18,600.00

time   2.00

rate  0.149

\frac{18600}{(1 + 0.149)^{2} } = PV  

PV   14,088.76

Then, we add them and subtract the investment to get NPV

NPV = 14,088.76 + 41,340.3 - 49,100 = 6,329.06

The toy should be produced as the NPV is positive.

Now for the IRR

That is the rate at which NPV equals zero we can solve for this using the quadratic equation as there are only two cash flow:

Year 1 will discount at (1+IRR)

Year 2 will be discount at (1+IRR )^2

So we can express and recreate the quadratic formula:

18,600 X^2 + 47,500 X - 49,500 = 0

A = 18,600

B = 47,500

C = -49,100

x_1 = \frac{-b+\sqrt{b^{2} -4ac}}{2a}\\x_2 = \frac{-b -\sqrt{b^{2} -4ac}}{2a}

We can solve and get:

x1 =  0.78957

x2 = -3.3433

We take the positive value.

and now solve for IRR

\frac{1}{1+ IRR} = 0.78957\\IRR = \frac{1}{0.78957} -1

IRR = 0,2665121 = 26.65%

This will be the IRR for the project.

4 0
3 years ago
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