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11111nata11111 [884]
4 years ago
13

Why do have to ignore the absolute value sign while solving differential equation?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kherson [118]4 years ago
7 0
It is in need of ignoring the absolute value sign when solving differential equations because they may interfere with the solution or in a way that the values that are being calculated may have a different answer in which is not the right answer to the given equation.
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While waiting for a video game to download, you notice that 30% of 32,000 kilobytes have been downloaded so far.
kirill [66]
9600 kilobytes...
30 x 32000 divided by 100 = 9600
hope this helps!
8 0
4 years ago
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following frequency distribution shows the daily expenditure on milk of 30 households in a locality:Daily expenditure on milk(in
valina [46]

<em>Note:</em> <em>As you missed to identify what we have to find in this question. But, after a little research, I am able to find that we had to find the Mode for the data given in your question. So, I am assuming we have to calculate the the Mode. Hopefully, it would clear your concept regarding this topic.</em>

Answer:

The mode of the data = 75

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets visualize the given data in a table to show the frequency distribution:

<em>Daily expenditure on milk (in Rs)           Number of households</em>

<em>                  0-30                                                           5</em>

<em>                 30-60                                                          6        </em>

<em>                 60-90                                                          9</em>

<em>                 90-120                                                         6</em>

<em>                 120-150                                                        4</em>

Here the maximum frequency is 9.

So, modal class is <em>60-90.</em>

<em />

As the formula to calculate the mode:

Mode = l_{1} + h (\frac{f_{1}-f_{0}}{2f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}} )

Here, the maximum

l_{1} =60, f_{1} =9, f_{0}=6, f_{0}=6, h=30

l= is the lower limit of the class

f_{1} = is the frequency of the modal class

f_{0} = is the frequency of the previous modal class

f_{2} = is the frequency of the next previous modal class

l= is the class size

So,

Mode = l_{1} + h (\frac{f_{1}-f_{0}}{2f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}} )

Mode = 60 + 30 (\frac{9-6}{2(9)-6-6} )

Mode = 60 + \frac{(30)(3)}{6}

Mode = 60 + 15=75

∴ The mode of the data = 75

<em>Keywords: mode, frequency distribution</em>

<em> Learn more about mode and frequency distribution from brainly.com/question/14354368</em>

<em> #learnwithBrainly </em>

5 0
3 years ago
HELP ME PLZZ ILL GIVE YOU BRAINLY ❤️
beks73 [17]

uwvvidwivwdviwdivwxivwxviwx

6 0
2 years ago
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I need some help, pls
yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Rise</u> = <u>5</u>

Run    2

Now, with that,  our y intercept is -6 because the line hits the y axis at -6 units. Then, we can setup our own equation for y=

and that is y=5/2 x -6

Then I have attached a graph below to certify my answer.

5 0
3 years ago
Which is the best of -3/5) (17 5/6)?
Zolol [24]

Answer:-9.

Step-by-step explanation: The actual answer is 10 7/10...

The closest estimate therefore is -9

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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