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Finger [1]
3 years ago
8

Solve 2x - 1 < 7 and 5x + 3 < 3. {x | x < 0} {x | x < 4} {x | 0 < x < 4}

Mathematics
2 answers:
nataly862011 [7]3 years ago
7 0
2x -1 <7 ; then, 2x < 8; then x < 4;
5x + 3 < 3; then, 5x < 0; then x < 0;
Finally, {x / x < 0};
saul85 [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Solution for givrn system of inequalities: \{x ~| ~x < 0\}

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given a system of two inequalities:

2x-1 < 7\\5x+3 < 3

Solving the inequalities individually:

2x-1 < 7\\2x

The intersection of the two solution will give us the solution to the system of inequalities:

x \in (-\infty, 4) \cap (-\infty, 0)\\ x \in (-\infty, 0) \\\{x ~| ~x < 0\}

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1. Which fractions are equivalent to 10/14?
amm1812

Answer: 1. 5/7 , 20,28

               2. 5/11

               3. 10/3

               4. 13/4

              5. 60

              6. 36 mins

              7. 3/4 < 33/40

              8. 19/24 , 2/3 , 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The UAE Hope Probe is between 22,000 Km and 44,000 KM away from mars. This means its between _____________m and ______________m.
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

This means it is between 22000000 m and 44000000 m.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, the UAE Hope Pobe is between 22 000 km and 44 000 km away from Mars.

Since,

1 000 m = 1 km

Then,

22 000 km = 22 000 x 1000 m

                   = 22000000 m

also,

44000 km = 44000 x 1000 m

                  = 44000000 m

Therefore, the Probe is between 22000000 m and 44000000 m.

6 0
3 years ago
A potato chip company produces a large number of potato chip bags each day and wants to investigate whether a new packaging mach
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

The conditions for the approximation have been met

Step-by-step explanation:

Random samples on both cases  and

p∧o proportion of bags packaged on the old machine that are damaged

p∧n sample proportion of bags packaged on the new machine that are damaged

p∧c  =  ( p∧o + p∧n ) / (nO + nN )  

p∧o = 15 %      p∧o =  0,15         nO = 150

p∧o *  nO = 0,15 *150          p∧o *  nO = 22,5

p∧n  = 8 %      p∧n  = 0,08     nN = 200

p∧n*nN  = 0,08 * 200     p∧n*nN  = 16

Both  p∧n*nN  and   p∧o *  nO    are bigger than 5

Therefore both samples are big enough for the approximation of the binomial distribution to normal distribution

4 0
3 years ago
What is the answer?
Pani-rosa [81]
The answer should be D

Number more than 3: 4, 5 and 6

Frequency of each number greater than three:
4- 20
5-30
6-38

Add them you get 88

Total frequency: 200

Therefore: 88/200 = 0.44
5 0
3 years ago
Solve for X. 6x – 9 = -27​
MissTica

Answer:

x = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

6x - 9 = -27 (Given)

6x = -18 (Add 9 on both sides.)

x = -3 (Divide 6 on both sides.)

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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