Answer:
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Answer:
The goodwill is $1.1 million
Explanation:
In this question, first we have to compute the net asset which is shown below:
Net asset = Total asset - total liabilities
where,
Total asset = Land + building + inventory
= $1.7 million + $3.4 million + $2.2 million
= $7.3 million
And, the total liabilities = long term note payable = $1.5 million
So, the net asset would equal to
= $7.3 million - $1.5 million
= $5.8 million
Now the goodwill equal to
= Cash purchase price - net asset
= $6.8 million - $5.8 million
= $1.0 million
Answer:
$532.24
Explanation:
Since Mr. Wise will be making monthly payments for the period of 25 years in order to accumulated the $1,000,000 at the end of 25 years, therefore, the future value of annuity shall be used to determine the monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise. The formula of future value of annuity is given as follows:
Future value of annuity=R[((1+i)^n-1)/i]
In the given scenario:
Future value of annuity=amount after 25 years=$1,000.000
R=monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise=?
i=interest rate per month=12/12=1%
n=number of payments involved=25*12=300
$1,000,000=R[((1+1%)^300-1)/1%]
R=$532.24
In response to a shortage caused by the imposition of a binding price ceiling on a market,
a. price will no longer be the mechanism that rations scarce resources.
b. long lines of buyers may develop.
c. sellers could ration the good or service according to their own personal biases.
A binding price ceiling is when the government or an agency of the government sets the maximum price of a good or service below the equilibrium price.
When price of a good is set below the equilibrium price of the good, the producer surplus would decreases and the consumer surplus would increase. This would lead to an excess of demand over supply. As a result, a shortage would occur. As a result of the shortage, black markets would occur.
To learn more about a price ceiling, please check: brainly.com/question/24312330
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