What are some possibilities for handling conflict within a professional environment?

The M-N plant manufactures two different products: M and N. Selling prices and weekly market demands are shown in the following

tamaranim1 [39]

The answers to the question are:

The machine that is the constraint is the machine c.
The product m = 80 units and n = 80 units
Net profit = $3600

<h3>1. How to solve for the constraint of the machine</h3>

We have to solve for the workload of the machines

For A. 20*100 = 2000

For B, 5 * 100 + 10 *80

= 500 + 800 = 1300

For Machine C = 15 * 100 + 15 * 80

= 1500 + 1200

= 2700

The time at the workstation in c is more than the constant time of 2400, hence the constraint that we have is machine c.

b. 2400- 1200 = 1200

The product mix would be 1200/15

= 80

Hence the product mix m = 80 units and that of n = 80 units

<h3>c. The total net profit</h3>

80*$90 = 7200 , 80 * 105 = 8400

7200 + 8400

= 15600

The net profit = 15600 - 12000

= $3600

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7 0

2 years ago

A magazine publisher collects one year in advance for subscription revenue. In the year of providing the magazines to customers,

photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": A decrease in a deferred tax asset.

Explanation:

A Deferred Tax Asset is an asset on a balance sheet of a business that can be used to lower taxable income. It is the opposite of deferred tax liability that reflects something that will increase income taxes. Both are listed under current assets on the Balance Sheet.

The deferred tax asset will be generated when recorded income taxes owed are higher than the income taxes paid to the Government.

Thus, <em>a decrease in deferred tax is recorded when a company has collected revenue in advance for a good not delivered or a service not rendered yet.</em>

5 0

3 years ago

G. How trustworthy do you think the secondary source is? Do you think this source

melomori [17]

Answer: The secondary source on a topic may be biased because the information is translated and the text and information could be altered

Explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

a company had net revenues of $1,800,000 and total expenses of $800,000, not including income taxes. it paid $300,000 in dividen

Gnesinka [82]

The company's total expenses, excluding income taxes, were $800,000, with net revenues of $1,800,000. It distributed dividends of $300,000. and it has a net income of $1,000,000 before taxes.

Net revenues = $1,800,000

Less: Total expense = $800,000

Net income before tax = $1,000,000

A dividend is a payment made by a company to its shareholders out of its profits. When a business generates a profit or surplus, it can distribute a portion of that profit to shareholders in the form of a dividend. Any unused funds are retained and reinvested back into the company. Both the profit from the current year and the retained earnings from prior years are available for distribution; a corporation is typically not allowed to pay a dividend out of its capital.

The amount that is distributed to shareholders may be paid in cash (typically a deposit into a bank account) or, if the company has a dividend reinvestment plan, it may be paid by the issuance of additional shares or the repurchase of shares.

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8 0

1 year ago

The Investments Fund sells Class A shares with a front-end load of 5% and Class B shares with 12b-1 fees of 0.75% annually as we

elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:

$\$1,000 \times 5\% = \$50 =\$1,000 - \$50 = \$950\\\\ \$950 (1 + 0.13)^4 = \$950 (1.13)^4 = \$950 (1.630474) = \$1,548.95\\\\$

You will place the total of $\$1,000$ on class B shares, but only $12b-1$ will be paid $(13-0.75 = 12.25)$ at a rate of $12.25\%$ and you'll pay a $1\%$ back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.

After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:

$\$1,000 (1 + 0.1225)^4 = \$1,437.66 \\\\ \$1,000 (1.1225)^4 = \$1000 (1.587616) = \$ 1,587.62$

Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:

$\$1,587.616 \times 0.99 = \$1,571.74 \\\\ Amounts \\\\ Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 1,548.95\\\\ Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 1,571.74 \\\\$

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.

Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

$\$950 (1.13)^{12} = \$950 (4.334523) = \$4,117.80 \\\\$

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.

Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

$\$1,000 (1.1225) 12 = \$1,000 (4.001623) = \$4,001.62 \\\\Amounts \\\\\ Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,117.80\\\\ Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,001.62\\\\$

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of $0.75\%\ \ 12b-1$ cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the $5\%$ the burden of class A shareholders.

4 0

3 years ago