C relative price » sub effect & income effect
Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.
- Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
- Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
- If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.
Thus the correct answer is d.
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Answer:
Clem should specialise in wheat production because he has higher profits there
Explanation:
Clem needs to make a decision on the product that will maximise his profits and not just the number of units of products he can manufacture.
If he produces only wheat he will have profit of 75 bushels * $2 = $150
If he produces only barley his profit will be 125 bushels * $0.80 = $100
This shows that wheat is more profitable for Clem. Even though he can produce more units of barley.
Answer:
C. The sale of equipment.
Explanation:
Investing activities: It records those activities that include the long-term asset buying and selling. The buying is a cash outflow while the sale is a cash inflow.
The cash outflow decreases the cash balance whereas cash inflow increases the cash balance. So the buying would be shown in a negative sign while the selling is shown in the positive sign
Hence, the correct option is C.
Answer:
Following are the solution to the given points:
Explanation:
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