Can anyone PLZZZ HELP me with all that plzzz. For 10 POINTS PLZZZ. :(((((

Universal Foods issued 10% bonds, dated January 1, with a face amount of $260 million on January 1, 2018. The bonds mature on De

kondaur [170]

Answer:

The bonds were issued at $220,879,628.13

This is lower than the face value to compensate for the lower coupon payment.

cash 220,879,628.13 debit

discount on BP 39,120,371.87 debit

bonds payable 260,000,000 credit

--to record the issuance of the bonds--

Interest expense 13,252,777.69 debit

Discoun on BP 252,777.69 credit

cash 13,000,000 credit

--to record the first interest payment--

Interest expense 13,267,944.35 debit

Discount on BP 267,944.35 credit

Cash 13,000,000 credit

--to record second interest payment--

Interest expense 13,539,156.67 debit

Discount on BP 539,156.67 credit

cash 13,000,000.00 credit

--to record Dec 31st, 2025 payment--

Explanation:

To determinate the price we will solve for the present value of the coupon payment and maturity at the market rate of %12

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

Coupon payment:

260,000,000 x 10% x 1/2 =13,000,000.000

time 20 years x 2 payment per year 40

yield to maturity 12% / 2 = 6%

$13000000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-40} }{0.06} = PV\\$

PV $195,601,859.3298

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 260,000,000.00

time 40.00

rate 0.06

$\frac{260000000}{(1 + 0.06)^{40} } = PV$

PV 25,277,768.80

PV c $195,601,859.3298

PV m $25,277,768.8042

Total $220,879,628.1340

For the journal entries, we will multiply this current market price of the bonds by the market rate (YTM) the difference between this and the actual cash obligation generate by the bond is the amortization of the discount.

<u>first interest payment </u>

$220,879,628.13 x 6% = 13,252,777.69

less actual cash outlay: 13,000,000

amortization 252,777.69

<u>second interest payment</u>

($220,879,628.13- $252,777.69) x 6% = 13,267,944.35

less actual cash outlay: <u> 13,000,000.00</u>

amortization 267,944.35

December 31st, 2025:

This will be payment 14th

after building the schedule until that date we got:

8 0

3 years ago

How to empower employees ?

Zepler [3.9K]

Answer:

set clear boundarys

dont be afaid to yell

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

It is important to use real rather than nominal gdp figures when making comparisons of output across time periods because the re

melamori03 [73]

Answer: TRUE

Explanation: Gross Domestic Product ( GDP) can be described as the market value of all goods and services produced in a country within a particular time period which is usually a year.

The equation for finding GDP is given as -

GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + ( Exports - Imports)

Nominal GDP can be described as the market value of all goods and services produced in a country within a particular time period using current market prices.

Real GDP can be described as the market value of all goods and services produced in a country within a particular time period using base year prices. Using base year prices to calculate real GDP adjusts for inflation.

4 0

3 years ago

2. (double-weight) A European put option is ""in the money."" The price of the underlying security now rises. a. What happens to

sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

(A) premium on put option falls (B) premium on call option rises (C) premium on call changes more in absolute terms

Explanation:

An European put expires on a specific maturity date and can only be exercised on that date. A put option grants the right to sell an underlying security at an exercise price (X) on the exercise date, irrespective of the price the underlying security is trading at (S). On the other hand, a call option grants the right the buy an underlying security at the exercise price. The call or put option buyer will pay a Premium to the option writer to obtain this right. The amount charged as premium depends on how valuable the option is.

The value of a put option (P) = X-S (thus, the lower the price of the underlying security, the more valuable the put option is, vice versa)

The value of a call option (C) = S-X (thus, the higher the price of the underlying security, the more valuation the call option is, vice versa)

If the price of the underlying security rises,

(A) the put option will become less valuable, and its premium will fall

(B) the call option will become more valuable, and its premium will rise.

(C) the absolute size of the change in the call option will be larger than that of the put option. This is because the more the price of the underlying security increases, the more valuable the call option will become (as an example, if I have an option to buy an item at $10 and the current price of the item is $20, I can pay a positive value for that option. If the market price of the item increases to $50, I can pay even more for the option to buy the item at $10).

Whereas, the value of a put option will remain static once the price of the underlying rises beyond the exercise price. For instance, if I have the option to sell an item at $10 when the market price is $20, I just will not exercise the option. I will not change my decision if the market price rises to $50.

3 0

3 years ago

Respond by (1) Identifying the type of syllogism below (Categorical, Disjunctive, Conditional) and (2) explain, in your own word

USPshnik [31]

The type of syllogism being used in the given sentence is a conditional syllogism.

<h3>What is Syllogism?</h3>

This refers to the use of reasoning in order to draw conclusions about something based on two premises.

Hence, we can see that conditional syllogism was used in the given premises and this is because it made use of either-or to show that if the sidewalk was wet, then that means that it must have rained.

This reasoning is faulty because there are different possible reasons for the sidewalk to be wet and not just rainfall.

Read more about syllogism here:
brainly.com/question/361872

6 0

3 years ago