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balandron [24]
3 years ago
5

Emerson Inc.'s would like to undertake a policy of paying out 45% of its income. Its latest net income was $1,250,000, and it ha

d 225,000 shares outstanding. What dividend per share should it declare? $2.14 $2.26 $2.38 $2.50 $2.63
Business
1 answer:
AfilCa [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$2.50

Explanation:

Given that,

Dividend Paying out under a policy = 45% of its income

Net income = $1,250,000

Number of shares outstanding = 225,000

Total dividends:

= 45% of its income

= $ 1,250,000 × 45%

= $562,500

Dividend per share:

= Total dividends ÷ Number of shares outstanding

= $562,500 ÷ 225,000

= $2.50

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The resume tends to be used to cover employment gaps are : c. functional.
by deviding the employee based on their function, so the employment could work in the same function of their job and reduce the gap.

hope this help

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
T governance has two major components: the assignment of decision-making authority and responsibility, and the _________________
Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

d. capability maturity model

Explanation:

According to my research on IT Governance , I can say that based on the information provided within the question the second major component is the capability maturity model. This model that is used to develop and enhance a company or organization's current software development process.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

4 0
3 years ago
In January 2012, one US dollar was worth 50 Indian rupees. Suppose that over the next year the value of the Indian rupee decreas
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

59% - a)increase - b)decrease

Explanation:

First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.

Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).

Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).

With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.

3 0
3 years ago
Who must make the determination to cancel an invitation for bids after bid opening?a.Contracting officerb.Chief of the contracti
Lesechka [4]

Answer:

c.Head of the contracting activity

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Avicorp has a $10 million debt issue outstanding, with a 6% coupon rate. The debt has semiannual coupons, the next coupon is due
rjkz [21]

Answer:

Explanation:

Pretax cost of debt is the annual rate(YTM) of the bond. Using a financial calculator, input the following to calculate it;

N = 5*2 = 10

PV = -(95% *10,000,000) = -9,500,000

Coupon PMT = (6%/2)*10,000,000 = 300,000

FV = 10,000,000

then compute semiannual rate; CPT I/Y = 3.604%

convert to annual rate = 3.604*2 = 7.21%(this is the pretax cost of debt)

After tax cost of debt is calculated because interest payable on debt has tax shield. The formula is as follows;

Aftertax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)

AT cost of debt = 7.21% (1-0.40)

AT cost of debt = 4.33%

8 0
3 years ago
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