Question

Read this passage from the Declaration of Independence. Prudence, indeed, will dictate that Governments long established should not be changed for light and transient causes; and accordingly all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed. The English spoken in 1776 is considered Late Modern English, but some differences between Jefferson's usage and our own are evident. What archaic expression does he use and how would you word the phrase in correct contemporary English?

Answer 1

"My teacher hath shewn the class how to divide fractions."
"Doing my chores without being asked hath shewn that I can be responsible."

The phrase "hath shewn" isn't one that we typically hear in conversations or see in writing anymore, right? In the passage above, "hath" is a conjugation of the verb "to have" that is not used anymore. For I, we, and ye "they have" would be used. For thou<u /> (now we use "they"), the word "hast" would be used. When using the conjugation for he, she, or it, the word "hath" was used. Shewn is a former spelling of the word "shown" that we use today. If Jefferson were to write this passage incorrect contemporary English, instead of "hath shewn", he would write "has shown".