Answer: mean monthly income = $5000
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Explanation
In any normal distribution, the median and mean are the same value.
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The proof is as follows:
If mean > median was the case, then the distribution would be skewed to the right (ie positively skewed). The right tail is pulled longer than the left tail. But this would contradict the symmetrical nature of the normal distribution. So mean > median must not be the case.
If mean < median, then the distribution would be skewed to the left (negatively skewed). Visually this pulls the left tail longer than the right tail. Like in the previous paragraph, this contradicts the symmetrical nature of the normal distribution. So mean < median must not be the case.
Since mean > median cannot be true, and neither can mean < median, this must indicate mean = median.
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So in short, any symmetrical distribution always has mean = median and they are at the very center of the distribution.
Answer:
The correct answer is: b. flexible manufacturing systems, total quality management, and information networks.
Explanation:
A Flexible Manufacturing System or FMS is a group of interconnected workstations through an automated material transport system. The transport system, as well as other storage systems that can be used, must be automatic. The whole set is controlled by computer
It is known as total quality management to a business management strategy that consists of the study and assessment of the concept of quality in each of the phases of an organizational process. Its purpose is the constant improvement of goods and services offered and the achievement of greater customer satisfaction.
Answer:
Attached is the complete questions containing the missing variables:
The activity rates for each activity are stated thus:
Cutting activity rate =$24/cutting hour
Assembly activity rate =$40/ assembly hour
Inspecting activity rate =$20/ inspecting hour
Reworking activity rate=$75/reworking hour
Explanation:
Cutting activity rate =$225600/(4000+5400)=$24/cutting hour
Assembly activity rate =$300000/(2850+4650)=$40/ assembly hour
Inspecting activity rate=$67500/(945+2430)=$20/ inspecting hour
Reworking activity rate=$45000/(150+450)=$75/reworking hour
Obviously you did not include the overheads incurred for each activity in your question,but I have the overhead for each activity in the attached full question with which I computed the required overhead activity rates
Answer:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Explanation:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n