During the three-month period, the plant is not able to produce anything because it shut down. Hence, its variable cost is equal to zero, however, during this period, the fixed cost is still greater than zero because of the process that needs to be done in order to ensure that once the plant is restarted.
For the reason stated above, the most likely answer to this item is the first choice.
The capital projects fund account for the 10 percent retainage as (B) II only.
<h3>
What is retainage?</h3>
- Retainage is a percentage of the agreed-upon contract price withheld until the work is substantially completed to ensure that the contractor or subcontractor will fulfill its responsibilities and complete a construction project.
- Retention is money kept back by one party in a contract as security for unfinished or defective work.
- Assume the contract is worth $20,000 and you're submitting a paid app after finishing 25% of the work.
- So you earned $5,000 during the pay period, but retainage is 5%. The current progress payment has been reduced by $250.
- As a result, the "Amount Due for this Request" will be $4,750.
So, in the given situation the capital projects fund account for the 10 percent retainage as (II) the credit for $400,000 to Contracts Payable-Retained Percentage, that is (B) II only.
Therefore, the capital projects fund account for the 10 percent retainage as (B) II only.
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The correct question is given below:
The capital projects fund of Hood River completed the construction of an addition to its city hall at a cost of $4,000,000. The city council approved payment of the amount due to the general contractor, less a 10 percent retainage. How should the capital projects fund account for the 10 percent retainage?
I. As a credit of $400,000 to Deferred Revenue-Retained Percentage
II. As the credit for $400,000 to Contracts Payable-Retained Percentage.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer:
A. The company paid a higher cost for the direct materials than allowed by the standards.
Explanation:
The following is a logical explanation for this variance:
Since, the standard quantity of raw materials to be used is 22 pounds x 500 units = 11000 pounds. The actual usage is 9500 pounds ony. Hence, variance in direct material price variance can be only due to higher cost of direct material purchased.
Answer:C.TINSTAAFL Rating
Explanation:
Answer: B. a 2 point capital gain
Explanation:
Municipal Bonds have to be amortized using the straight-line method and this applied to both newly issued or bonds being traded at a premium.
The bond in question is trading at 105 and so has a 5 point premium which needs to be amortized at 1 point a year for 5 years. As it was bought after two years, the amortization was 2 points which means the cost of the bond should be;
105 - 2 = 103
Yet it was sold for 105. The gain is therefore
= 105 - 103
= 2 point capital gain
