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USPshnik [31]
3 years ago
5

Two quadrilaterals are similar. The length of the row longest sides of the first quadrilateral are 40in and 60in. The lengths of

the three shortest sides of the second quadrilateral are 5in, 12in, and 16in. Find the unknown lengths of the sides of these two figures .
Mathematics
1 answer:
Andreyy893 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The sides of the first quadrilateral are 60 in, 40 in, 30 in and 12,5 in

The sides of the second quadrilateral are 24 in, 16 in, 12 in and 5 in

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

If two figures are similar, then the ratio of its corresponding sides is proportional, and this ratio is called the scale factor

Arrange the sides of each quadrilateral from largest to smallest

<u><em>First quadrilateral </em></u>            <u><em>Second quadrilateral</em></u>

Longest side=60 in          Longest side=c in

Second side=40 in           Second side=16 in

Third  side= a in                Third  side= 12 in

Fourth side=b in                Fourth side=5 in

so

\frac{60}{c}=\frac{40}{16}=\frac{a}{12}=\frac{b}{5}

<em>Find the value of c</em>

\frac{60}{c}=\frac{40}{16}

c=60(16)/40

c=24\ in

<em>Find the value of a</em>

\frac{40}{16}=\frac{a}{12}

a=40(12)/16

a=30\ in

<em>Find the value of b</em>

\frac{40}{16}=\frac{b}{5}

b=40(5)/16

b=12.5\ in

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Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

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And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

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