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daser333 [38]
3 years ago
6

An IRA uses immediate annuities to pay out benefits; the IRA owner is nearly 75 years old when he decides to collect distributio

ns. What kind of penalty would the IRA owner pay?
Business
1 answer:
soldier1979 [14.2K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

50% tax on the amount not distributed as required

Explanation:

In this specific scenario, the individual will have to pay a penalty of 50% tax on the amount not distributed as required. This is mainly due to the fact that traditional IRA accounts require that distribution of benefits must begin no later than age 70½ if immediate annuities are used to pay for them. Failure to do so would have a consequence of a 50% tax on the undistributed amount, and must be paid by the owner of the account.

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If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT one of the three big categories for periodic evaluations:
Lilit [14]

The category that does not belong to the periodic evaluation is Change Analysis.

Option D is the correct answer.

<h3>What is a periodic evaluation?</h3>

Periodic evaluation is a technique that is totally developmental in nature and disregards the formal advice relating to tenure, retention, or promotion of employees.

Periodic evaluation has three broad categories namely, hazard analysis, safety, and health-related inspections, and evaluation relating to personal protective equipment (PPE).

Therefore, out of the provided options, Change analysis is not considered a category for periodic evaluation.

Learn more about the periodic evaluation. in the related link;

brainly.com/question/17095233

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
He idea underlying maslow's hierarchy of needs is that the needs at the top of the pyramid must be satisfied before one can conc
lana66690 [7]
True i hope this helps you 
7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following will not cause the production possibility frontier to shift? Group of answer choices the introduction of
algol13

Answer:

an increase in the working population

Explanation:

The Production possibilities frontier (PPF) is a curve that shows the various combination of two goods a company can produce when all its resources are fully utilised.  

The PPC is concave to the origin. This means that as more quantities of a product is produced, the fewer resources it has available to produce another good. As a result, less of the other product would be produced. So, the opportunity cost of producing a good increase as more and more of that good is produced.  

The PPF can shift either inward or outward.

An outward shift is associated with an increase in output while an inward shift is associated with a reduction in output.

Factors that cause the PPF to shift

1. changes in technology. technological progress leads to outward shift of the PPF. introduction of "fiber optic" technology would shift the PPF outward.

2. changes in available resources. a land reclamation program would increase the land available for production and this would increase output. While an explosion destroying a chemical plant would reduce output and lead to an inward shift of the PPF

3. changes in the labour force. A decrease in unemployment would increase output and shift the the PPF outward

Working population is the number of people between 15-59.

6 0
3 years ago
The following are selected 2015 transactions of Pedigo Corporation.
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The necessary adjusting entries at December 31 to record amortization required by the events above has been prepared.

It should also be noted that due to the goodwill having an indefinite life, no entry was made to amortize the goodwill.

It should be noted that the amortization expense was gotten as:

Annual amortization = $75,000/5

= $15,000

2015 amortization= $15,000 × 8/12months

= $15,000 × 2/3

= $30,000/3

= $10,000

Kindly check the attached file forthe adjusting entries

5 0
3 years ago
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