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mrs_skeptik [129]
3 years ago
9

On January 1, Year 1, Chaco Company sold $300,000 of 10% twenty-year bonds. Interest is payable semiannually on June 30 and Dece

mber 31. The bonds were issued for $359,378, priced to yield 8%. What is the amount of effective interest expense that Chaco will record for the six months ended June 30, Year 1
Business
2 answers:
Andrei [34K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The amount of effective interest expense that chaco will record in the first six months is $14,375

Explanation:

interest payment that will be first made is on June 30, Year 1. Therefore, the outstanding balance used in the calculation is the issue price.

The interest expense is calculated by these formula

Interest expense = Effective semiannual interest rate × Outstanding balance

Interest expense = (8% ÷ 2) × $359,378 = $14,375

So the interest expense is gotten as %14,375

GalinKa [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$14,375

Explanation:

Interest expense = Effective interest for first interest period × Period of time covered by adjusting entry.

Therefore:

Interest expense = 8%× $359,378 = $28,759.24

$28,759.24/2 = $14,375

The adjusting entry will record interest for the June 30 Year 1 will include a debit to Interest Expense in the amount of $14,375.

Hence,

Dr Interest Expenses $14,375

The amount of interest expense that should be accrued by chaco in an adjusting entry dated June 30, Year 1 is $14,375

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alina1380 [7]
Answer:

For centuries the guideline for business transactions was the Latin term “caveat emptor” (let the buyer beware). This principle suggests that the seller is not responsible for the buyer’s welfare. In other words such principle gives the buyer the sole responsibility for checking the quality and suitability of the goods that he is buying from the seller before making a final purchase.
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2 years ago
What is the difference between an authoritarian and a democratic manager?
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

Autocratic leadership has only one person that has the authority to make decisions and takes very little to no inputs from other groups, Democratic leadership allows everyone to participate in decision making.

Explanation:

Authoritarian leadership, also known as autocratic leadership, is a management style in <u>which an individual has total decision-making </u>power and absolute control.

Democratic management involves managers reaching decisions with the <u>input of the employees</u> but being responsible for making the final decision.

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2 years ago
Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direc
astraxan [27]

Answer:

Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000

Real overhead= 38,000

Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH

Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated

5 0
3 years ago
The difference between slope and elasticity is that slope _________.a. is a ratio of two changes, and elasticity is a ratio of t
jekas [21]

Answer:

c. measures changes in quantity demanded more accurately than elasticity.

Explanation:

Base on the scenario been described in the question, slope measures changes in quantity demanded very accurately compared to elasticity. The main for this reason is that m, slope and elasticity are not the same concepts. Slope evaluates the

flatness or steepness of a line in terms of the evaluating units for price and quantity, while elasticity evaluates the relative response of quantity to changes in price.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Frankenstein Electric has a capital structure that consists of 60 percent equity and 40 percent debt. The company's long-term bo
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

Kd = 7%

Ke =      D1      +  g

        Po(1 - FC)

Ke =      $2            + 0.09

        $40(1 - 0.15)

Ke =       $2      +  0.09

              $34

Ke = 0.1488 = 14.88%

WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T)

WACC = 14.88(60/100) + 7(40/100)(1 - 0.40)

WACC = 8.928 + 1.68

WACC = 10.6%

Explanation:

In this case before-tax cost of debt is given. Cost of equity is expected dividend divided by current market price after flotation cost plus growth rate. WACC is calculated as cost of equity multiplied by the proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure.

8 0
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