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raketka [301]
3 years ago
9

Companies that fail to install adequate safety equipment because they feel pressured not to cut into their profits commit a crim

e against their employees. This behavior can best be explained by what theory?
Business
1 answer:
UkoKoshka [18]3 years ago
8 0

This behavior best explained by Strain theory

Explanation:

Strain theory, in sociology, a hypothesis that pressure arising from social conditions, such as lack of income or lack of quality education, causes individuals to commit a crime. Strain theory describes deviant behavior as an unavoidable consequence of the experience of distressing individuals as they are deprived of the means of attaining cultural goals.

The central principle of general strain theory is that people who encounter pressure or stress are depressed or frustrated which can lead them to commit a crime to cope.

You might be interested in
Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
Martin Corp. permits any of its employees to buy shares directly from the company through payroll deduction. There are no broker
Rashid [163]

Answer: $57,000,000

Explanation:

The employees purchased at a 20% discount which means that this 20% discount is the amount that would have to be covered by the company's pretax earnings:

= 19,000,000 * 15 * 0.2

= $57,000,000

<em>Martin's pretax earnings will be reduced by $57 million because the company would have to cover the discount on the shares. </em>

8 0
3 years ago
If maria gets 80 utils from consuming five​ cookies, 100 utils from consuming six​ cookies, and 120 utils from consuming seven​
Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

The correct answer is 20 Utils

Explanation:

Marginal utility is the change in the utility from an increase in the consumption of a good or service.

Example of Maria

Maria gets 80 utils from consuming 5 cookies

If Maria consumes 6 cookies, The Utils change from 80 to 100. <u>This difference of 20 is called marginal utility.</u>  (100-80=20)

3 0
3 years ago
Luca's parents set firm rules but are responsive to his needs. They give him a chance to explain himself and also explain their
Zina [86]

Answer:

This is a typical super-protective parenting style. In my opinion this parent´s behavior is not positive and is out  of use. Nowadays parents try to talk more, explain dangerous to teens and give them some freedom to have a good time with friends.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One of the reasons why the discounted cash flow method of valuation is useful in assessing the value of fixed income instruments
Lerok [7]

Answer:

B

i just know im right

7 0
3 years ago
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