Question

HELLP!

Answer 1

Answer: Value of f(x)=32 when the value of x=8

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

the function f(x) varies directly with x and f(x).

If x=40, f(x)=40

So, if x=8 then we have to find the value of f(x):

Since there is direct variation,

$\frac{160}{40}=\frac{f(x)}{8}\\\\4=\frac{f(x)}{8}\\\\4\times 8=f(x)\\\\32=f(x)$

So, value of f(x)=32 when the value of x=8.

Answer 2

The answer is (A) which is 32.. If u can f(x) =160 when x=40 and if we divide 160 by 40 we get 4.. Therefore we can say that to get the f(x) we have to multiple the value of x by 4. . *NB: as the value of x=40, f(x) is: 40×4=160 . * Therefore as the value of x=8, f(x) is: 8×4=32