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yawa3891 [41]
4 years ago
11

Can someone please explain this to me? I've been staring at this for 10 minutes.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vilka [71]4 years ago
7 0
Always, never. Since you are multiplying the same number that you are dividing 1 by, they would essentially cancel out and leave you with 1. If a and b are both negative, then because a negative multiplied by another negative is always positive, it would never be equal to -1
zloy xaker [14]4 years ago
4 0

never and never

 2 negatives multiplied by each other = a positive number

 lets look at the first one:

 let a = -2

 you then have -2*(1/-2) = -2 * (-.5) = 1 ( positive 1 )

2nd eq, multiply a negative by a negative:

a = -3, b=-4, -3*-4 = 12 ( positive 12)

 both equations give positive numbers for answers


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3 years ago
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7 0
3 years ago
Your answer<br> What is the value of the expression? -50 + 51? *
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3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
he graph shows f(x) = [1/2]^x and its translation, g(x). Which describes the translation of f(x) to g(x)? translation of four un
Annette [7]

Answer by YourHope:


Hi! :)


The graph shows f(x) = [1/2]^x and its translation, g(x). Which describes the translation of f(x) to g(x)?


Translation of four units up! The f(x) function cannot possibly be f(x)=1/2, though, because that would be a horizontal line through y = 1/2 and that function is clearly not a horizontal line.  So whatever f(x) is really, add 4 to the tail end of it to show its translation!


:)

6 0
4 years ago
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