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kap26 [50]
3 years ago
6

Why were the Dark Ages called Dark Ages, and include 1 piece of evidence.

History
2 answers:
attashe74 [19]3 years ago
5 0

The period between 500-1500 A.D. included political turmoil, social unrest and the spread of disease. In Europe the fall of the Greek and Roman empires, the term "Dark Ages" means the different in cultural advances between Europeans citizens and people living in ancient Greece & Rome. European populations lacked advancement in several key academic disciplines, including science and mathematics.

Dark Ages is a term in European historiography referring to the Early Middle Ages. It was a time of struggle in Europe because the regional governments that had been in place for so long were beginning to break down. Happened right before the Renaissance began. The arrival of destructive maladies in Europe in the form of famine and disease. Of the illnesses that struck Europe, the bubonic plague was most destructive. The plague sickened and killed millions of Europeans.

nikdorinn [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Another reason why the Middle Ages are often called the Dark Ages is because, compared with other eras, historians don't know as much about this time. In some ways, this period of time has been lost to history. Many important records from this time have not survived.

Explanation:

you can say according to the article they are called Middle ages because of the black death.

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When did Benjamin Franklin taxation without representation
katrin [286]

Benjamin Franklin wrote the letter that had to do with the taxation without representation on 1754 to Governor William Shirley of Massachusetts.

<h3>What is meant by taxation without representation?</h3>

This was the term that was used to refer to the fact that the people on the American colonies were being taxed too much in a government that they were not a part of. They felt that it was unfair that they would be made to pay so much but in the British parliament they had no one that was representing them there.

Hence we would say that the taxation without representation was something that was written in the year 1754.

Read more on Benjamin Franklin here: brainly.com/question/509859

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What factors caused the decline of the Roman Empire?
never [62]

Answer:

2. financial problems, political corruption, and repeated invasions

Explanation:

The Romans were best known for their repeated conquests to rule over many states however a lot of times because of this and the conquests failing they had nothing to pay the armies, so they practically went bankrupt.

Political corruption was another thing that caused the downfall of the Roman empire, the politics of the Roman empire were mostly based upon how much a person could get out of another man and to be honest there was a reason why the romans were so willing to do so.

you see the Romans were actually the outcasts of the Greek empire and after a while the outcasts formed together to make a dream: the Roman Empire. However, none of them had wives so they went to a neighboring kingdom and stole all their daughters and wives after a big feast. The women never returned to their original husbands. Then there was Romulus and Aeneas they fought over who was to lead these outcasts and a result was the death of Aeneas, so then the word I was invented into their vocabulary making it stand above the needs of family allowing greed to fill their hearts

They were constantly being invaded because their armies were always off conquering other kingdoms leaving theirs unprotected.

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vovangra [49]
The main reason why the President would wanted to appoint a judge who is acceptable to the legislative branch is that judges need to be confirmed by the Senate in order to be fully appointed. 
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