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3 years ago

In a lean system, work-in-process inventory is reduced to reveal production problems, which can then be

Business

1 answer:

Y_Kistochka [10]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Lean system, also called lean manufacturing, is a continuous elimination of waste from all process, using the ideas of all employees, especially those at the lower levels of the organization.

Process of Inventory Tracking:

-Sensors. to track real time movements and location of raw materials, work in progress and finished goods, and high value tooling.

-Analytics. to optimize inventory on hand and automatically signal for replenishment.

Advantages:

-This process freeing up employees for more valuable tasks.

-Inventory accuracy.

-Cost cutting.

-Improved data visibility.

-Preventing stock issues.

-Better customer service.

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Belmain Co. expects to maintain the same inventories at the end of 20Y7 as at the beginning of the year. The total of all produc

Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

Part a 

Belmain Co.

Estimated Income statement for the year ended 2017.

Sales ($240 x 12,000) $2,880,000

Less Variable Costs :

Direct Materials ($50.00 x 12,000) ($600,000)

Direct Labor ($30.00 x 12,000) ($360,000)

Factory Overheads ($6.00 x 12,000) ($72,000)

Sales Salaries and Commissions ( $4.00 x 12,000) ($48,000)

Miscellaneous selling expenses ( $1.00 x 12,000) ($12,000)

Supplies ($4.00 x 12,000) ($48,000)

Miscellaneous administrative expenses ($1.00 x 12,000) ($12,000)

Contribution $1,728,000

Less Fixed Expenses :

Factory overhead ($350,000)

Sales salaries and commissions ($340,000)

Advertising ($116,000)

Travel ($4,000)

Miscellaneous selling expense ($2,300)

Office and officers’ salaries ($325,000)

Supplies ($6,000)

Miscellaneous administrative expense ($8,700)

Net Income ( Loss) $576,000

Part b

0.6 or 60 %

Part c

Break-even sales (units) = 8,000

Break-even sales (dollars) = $1,920,000

Part d

See attachment

Part e

Margin of safety in dollars = $960,000

Margin of safety in percentage = 33.3 %

Part f

Operating Leverage = 3.00

Explanation:

Income Statement :

Sales - Expenses = Income

Note : I have separated Variable and Fixed Expenses

Contribution Margin ratio :

Contribution Margin ratio = Contribution ÷ Sales

= $1,728,000 ÷ $2,880,000

= 0.6 or 60 %

Break-even sales ( units and dollars) :

Break-even sales (units) = Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution per unit

= $1,152,000 ÷ $144.00

= 8,000

Break-even sales (dollars) = Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution margin ratio

= $1,152,000 ÷ 0.60

= $1,920,000

Margin of safety in dollars and as a percentage of sales :

Margin of safety in dollars = Expected Sales (dollars) - Break-even sales (dollars)

= $2,880,000 - $1,920,000

= $960,000

Margin of safety in % = (Expected Sales - Break-even sales ) ÷ Expected Sales

= $960,000 ÷ $2,880,000

= 33.3 %

Operating leverage

Operating Leverage = Contribution ÷ Earnings Before Interest and Tax

= $1,728,000 ÷ $576,000

= 3.00

3 0

3 years ago

Seven years ago, you paid $324,800 to purchase a rental house. the maintenance expenses average $200 a month and property taxes

Mariulka [41]

The value that would be assigned to this house if you decide to use it as your office would be $ 425300

<h3>How to solve for the value of the house using opportunity cost</h3>

To get the value of the house, you have to get the opportunity cost of the house. This is the foregone alternative or benefits forgone due to another choice.

The formula is opportunity cost = Apprised Value - Selling costs

The apprised value = $439,500.

selling cost = $14,200

$439,500 - $14,200

= $ 425300

Hence the value that should be assigned to it is $ 425300

Read more on opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/1549591

#SPJ4

3 0

2 years ago

In order for information to be meaningful, a firm’s accounting processes and procedures should be certified as accurate by accep

kipiarov [429]

Here is the correct answer that would best complete the given statement above. In order for information to be meaningful, a firm’s accounting processes and procedures should be certified as accurate by acceptable accounting standards so companies hire BOOKKEEPER PRIVATE ACCOUNTANTS to provide unbiased opinions about the accuracy of a firm’s financial statements. Hope this is the answer that you are looking for.

7 0

3 years ago

Cash paid to retire notes $ 112 Common shares acquired for treasury 172 Proceeds from issuance of preferred stock 254 Proceed

arsen [322]

Answer:

$176 million

Explanation:

The calculation of net cash inflows from financing activities is shown below:-

Net cash inflows from financing activities

Proceeds from issuance of preferred stock $254 million

Proceeds from issuance of subordinated bonds $292 million

Less: Cash dividends paid on preferred stock (86) million

Less: Cash paid to retire note ($112) million

Less: Common shares acquired for treasury (172) million

Net cash inflows from financing activities $176 million

The positive sign represents the cash inflow and the negative sign represents the cash outflow

6 0

3 years ago

On November 1, Vacation Destinations borrows $1.57 million and issues a six-month, 9% note payable. Interest is payable at matur

Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

(a) To Record the issuance of the note

Debit Cash $1.57 million

Credit Notes payable $1.57 million

(To record notes payable issuance)

(b) Adjusting entry for interest expense at December 31:

Debit Interest expense $23,550

Credit Interest payable $23,550

(To record interest expense on notes payable as at Dec 31)

Explanation:

Note payable is a promissory note with a written promise made by the borrower to the lender (payee) to pay a certain, definite sum at a specified date.

Interest expense on the notes is calculated as: Principal x Interest Rate x Time

In this case, the total interest expense is $1.57 million x 9%/12 x 6 months = $70,650.

Total interest expense to the Company as at December 31 is therefore $70,650 / 6 months x 2 months = $23,550.

3 0

3 years ago