Answer:
Fixed overhead application rate
= <u>Budgeted fixed overhead</u>
Budgeted direct labour hours
= <u>$114,000</u>
60,000 hrs
= $1.90 per direct labour hour
Amount of overhead applied to job X387: $
Variable overhead $4.90 x 170 hours = 833
Fixed overhead $1.90 x 170 hours = 323
1,156
Explanation:
In this case, there is need to calculate the fixed overhead application rate based on direct labour hours by dividing the the budgeted fixed overhead by budgeted direct labour hours. Then, we will calculate the overhead applied to Job X387 by multiplying the fixed and variable application rate by actual direct labour hours of 170 hours.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
Answer:
The correct answer is "key assumption"
Explanation:
In a business plan, the term key assumption refers to the sum of the plan, workforce, place, time and all the resources that you need to manage your business. Every business plan is filled with assumptions.
The objective is to identify is a project would be profitable or not,
Usually, investors use the key assumptions, before they decide to put in money.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question which, Darren was eligible to assist to a traditional of 401,000 in 2019, but we were told he forgot and later he paid in 15, June 2020, he is look as though he paid in 2019 because and it is true.
The reason why the answer is true is that Darren is that the time he paid the money in July 15, 2020, it was still within the time he allowed to still pay for the year 2019, that's why he considered as though he paid in 2019.
Answer:
The stock’s value per share is $10.42
Explanation:
For:
FCF1 = Expected cash flow of the firm
= $25 million
WACC = 10%
g = 4%
Firm value = FCF1/(WACC - g)
= 25,000,000/(0.10 - 0.04)
= $416,666,666.67
We know that there is no debt & preferred stock, so the firm value will be equal to Equity value
:
Firm value = Equity value
= $416,666,666.67
stock value per share = Equity Value/No. of share outstanding
= $416,666,666.67/40,000,000
= $10.42 per share
Therefore, The stock’s value per share is $10.42
