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siniylev [52]
3 years ago
12

Plz help it would mean a lot

English
2 answers:
Dovator [93]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\frac{\frac{8}{9} - \frac{5}{6} }{\frac{1}{6} } = \frac{1}{3}

Explanation:

There is two ways of doing this problem. I will show both ways.

Solving Problem (First way):

First, let's find a common denominator between \frac{8}{9} and -\frac{5}{6}.

They both can multiply to 36, so that is their (least) common denominator.

Multiply each fraction by the amount it would take to get to 36.

\frac{8}{9} * \frac{4}{4} = \frac{32}{36} and - \frac{5}{6} * \frac{6}{6} = -\frac{30}{36}

Now, add these two together:

\frac{32}{36} - \frac{30}{36} = \frac{2}{36}

This reduces down to \frac{1}{18}.

\frac{1}{18} divided by \frac{1}{6} is the same as

This is equal to \frac{6}{18}, which reduces down to \frac{1}{3}.

Solving Problem (Second way):

\frac{\frac{8}{9} - \frac{5}{6} }{\frac{1}{6} } is the same as saying \frac{\frac{8}{9} }{\frac{1}{6} } and \frac{-\frac{5}{6} }{\frac{1}{6} }.

These are being divided by \frac{1}{6}, which is the same as multiplying b 6.

The values should now look like this:

\frac{16}{3} - 5.

(If you want the same denominator, convert 5 into parts of 3, so \frac{15}{3})

When you add these together, you get \frac{1}{3}.

I hope this helps!!

arlik [135]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

3/4 or 0.75

Explanation:

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