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Margarita [4]
3 years ago
12

Uncertainty about interest-rate movements and returns is called Question 3 options: A) market potential. B) interest-rate irregu

larities. C) interest-rate risk. D) financial creativity.
Business
1 answer:
WITCHER [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": interest-rate risk.

Explanation:

Interest-rate risk is the threat that already owned investments will lose market value if new investments with higher interest rates come onto the market. It has a more direct effect on the value of bonds than stocks and is a major risk to all bondholders. Bond prices decrease and the interest rate increases and when bond prices increase it is because interest rate decreased.

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R.S. Green has 250,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a market price of $28 a share. Next year’s annual dividend is expec
zhannawk [14.2K]

Answer:

WACC 6.18%

Explanation:

to get the cost of capital we solve using the gordon model:

\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

\frac{divends}{Price} = return-growth

\frac{divends}{Price} + growth = return

$Cost of Equity =\frac{D_1}{P)} +g

D1 1.55

P 28

f 0.00

g 0.02

$Cost of Equity =\frac{1.55}{28} +0.02

Ke 0.075357143

Then for the cost of debt, we need to calculate the YTM of the bonds:

which is the rate at which the present value of the coupon payment and maturity equals the market price:

For the complexity this is done with excel or a financial calculator there is also an approximation formula

YTM with excel: 0.073516565

now that we good this we need to determinate the weigth of equity and debt:

250,00 shares x 28 dollars each = 7,000,000

1,500 bonds of $1,000 each at 98% = 7,350,000

value of the company: 7,000,000 + 7,350,000 = 14,350,000

Ew: 7,000,000 / 14,350,000 = 0.487804878

Dw: 7,350,000 / 14,350,000 =0.512195122

Now we got all values and we can determinate the WACC:

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.075357143

Equity weight 0.487804878

Kd 0.074

Debt Weight 0.512195122

t 0.34

WACC = 0.075357143(0.48780487804878) + 0.074(1-0.34)(0.51219512195122)

WACC 0.0617752 = 6.18%

7 0
3 years ago
Trapp Company reported net income of $110,000 for 2019 and paid dividends of $60,000 on November 1, 2019. Grape Company owns 15%
MArishka [77]

Answer:

$9,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Trapp Company reported,

Net income for 2019 = $110,000

Dividends paid on November 1, 2019 = $60,000

Grape Company owns 15% of the common stock of Trapp.

Using a fair-value method,

Therefore,

Income earned by Grape company is as follows:

= 15% of the total amount of dividend paid

= 0.15 × $60,000

= $9,000

6 0
3 years ago
Pepsi True is a new cola from Pepsi-Cola that is sweetened with a combination of sugar and stevia leaf extract, resulting in a s
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

mid-calorie soft drinks such as Pepsi Next (2012) have not been successful in the past.

Explanation:

The new Pespsi true is a great product that offers the advantage of having the same flavor as Pepsi but lower calorie content of only 60 calories. This should sell well with consumers that are looking for lower calorie options.

However if there was a similar product like Pepsi True called Pepsi Next in 2012 that was mid-calories and was not successful, this could be a show stopper. People's perceptions of Pepsi Next will affect Pepsi True as they will feel it is just a repackaged Pepsi Next.

This will most likely lead to failure of the product similar to what happened with Pepsi Next.

7 0
3 years ago
Marks Consulting purchased equipment costing $45,000 on January 1, Year 1. The equipment is estimated to have a salvage value of
Tasya [4]

Answer:

B) Debit to accumulated depreciation for $22,500.

Explanation:

As for the information provided,

Depreciation under straight line method for each year = ($45,000 - $5,000)/8 = $5,000 for each year.

Depreciation for 4 years = $5,000 \times 4 = $20,000

Depreciation in 5th year for 6 months = $5,000/2 = $2,500

Total depreciation till 1 July Year 5 = $20,000 + $2,500 = $22,500

Carrying value of equipment in books as on date of sale = $45,000 - $22,500 = $22,500

Sale price = $20,000

Profit or loss on sale of equipment = $20,000 - $22,500 = - $2,500

So therefore, there is loss of $2,500

Thus, option c and option d are invalid.

Further cash received on sale is debited and not credited thus, option a is also invalid.

As the total accumulated depreciation = $22,500

The correct entry will include debit to accumulated depreciation of $22,500.

Thus, option b is correct.

6 0
3 years ago
The projected benefit obligation was $80 million at the beginning of the year. Service cost for the year was $10 million. At the
irinina [24]

Answer:

$87 million

Explanation:

The projected benefit obligation (PBO) is a measurement of the present amount of money needed by a company to cover future pension liabilities. PBO uses how long the employee will work and any increased future obligations to the employee's pension.

Given that:

PBO at the beginning of the year = $80 million

Service cost for the year =  $10 million

Interest =  Discount rate × PBO at beginning of the year = 5% × $80 million = 0.05 × $80 million = $4 million

Actuarial (gain) Loss = Amount paid - Expected money = $5 million - $4 million = $1 million

Benefits paid paid by trustees = $6 million

The total pension expense for the year = PBO at year beginning + Service cost + interest - Actuarial (gain) Loss - benefits = $80 million + $10 million + $4 million - $1 million - $6 million = $87 million

6 0
3 years ago
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