3 years ago

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Mathematics

2 answers:

cestrela7 [59]3 years ago

5 0

The answer is B f(x) is a one-to-one function.

Vinvika [58]3 years ago

4 0

F(x) is a one to one function.That maps out one function to another ,and it therefore passes both the vertical and horizontal I ine test

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IgorLugansk [536]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Read 2 more answers