<span><span>What payment method typically charges the highest interest rates?
pay day loans</span></span>
Accounting or accountancy is the measurement, processing, and communication of financial and non financial information about economic entities such as businesses and corporations.
Answer: Appropriate/accurate relationship marketing
Explanation:
Relationship marketing refers to the scenario where producers build a bonding with customers in rider to improve services they offer to the customer and producing high quality products based what the customers demand for. The aim of these marketing strategy is to maintain existing customers who can recommend potential customers to use the product, also they are other services attached like Promo and bonuses which are used to encourage consumers. Phat strategy used on his customers is known as Accurate relationship marketing.
Answer:
Is referred to as accumulated depreciation.
Explanation:
Depreciation can be defined as the reduction of cost of a fixed asset systematically until the value of the asset becomes zero.
The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) can be defined as a depreciation system that avails business owners or companies the ability and opportunity to recover or recoup the cost basis of physical assets that have experienced deterioration over a specific period of time.
In the United States of America, the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) is used mainly for tax purposes because it gives room for faster depreciation of a physical asset in its first years or initial usage and reduces depreciation as it is being used over a long period of time.
Hence, the total amount of depreciation recorded against an asset over the entire time the asset has been owned is referred to as accumulated depreciation.
Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:
WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7BFV%20%5C%3A%20inflow%7D%7BPV%20%5C%3A%20outflow%7D%7D%20-1)
![MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C268%2C386.82%7D%7B2%2C609%2C179.84%7D%7D%20-1)
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%
