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Daniel [21]
4 years ago
10

The allowance method of estimating uncollectible accounts receivable based on an analysis of receivables shows that $640 of acco

unts receivable are uncollectible. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a debit balance of $110.
The adjusting entry at the end of the year will include a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts in the amount of:

A) $530. B) $640. C) $750. D) $110.
Business
2 answers:
Anuta_ua [19.1K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C) $750.

Explanation:

Bad debt Expense will be calculated using the percentage of debt loss. The expense will be calculated using the account receivable balance.

Closing Value of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be as follow

As Allowance for Doubtful Accounts already have debit balance of $110, we need to adjust the remainder to make the closing credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $640 at the year end.

Adjustment Value = $640 + $110 = $750

Nonamiya [84]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Option C,$750 is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Since the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts is a debit,the current year estimated uncollectible accounts receivable needs to  be added in order to determine true position of allowance for uncollectible accounts at year end as shown below:

balance of allowance for uncollectible accounts receivable $100

add newly estimated allowance for uncollectible accounts    $640

Actual balance at year end                                                         $750

As a result the correct option is C,$750

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An organization with high fixed costs (relative to variable costs) will suffer a greater decrease in profit as volume declines t
garri49 [273]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Fixed cost is the cost which cannot be avoided and is not dependent on level of activity thus, if there is high fixed cost than variable cost, in that case with decrease in level of output the loss will rise rapidly.

Where variable cost is more than fixed cost, then the cost will only increase or incur when there is production accordingly in case of low sale or low production the loss will also be less, as accordingly cost will be less.

Therefore, the statement in question is TRUE

3 0
3 years ago
A strong incentive structure: Multiple select question. offers bonuses to managers based on firm performance. should be implemen
a_sh-v [17]

A strong incentive structure aligns worker self-interest with firms' interest.

<h3>What are incentives?</h3>

These are money or other forms of benefits that are given to the workers that are in a work place.

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Read more on incentives here:

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3 0
2 years ago
Economic growth in the south asian realm has come about mostly as a result of
olga_2 [115]
I had to look for the options and here is my answer:
 The result of the economic growth in the South Asian boundaries has come about mostly on NEOLIBERAL REFORMS or NEOLIBERALISM. This is also known as the market-oriented type of reform. Hope this helps.
6 0
3 years ago
A firm currently sells $1,500,000 annually of an expensive product line. That firm is considering a similar, less expensive, dis
Vesna [10]

Answer:

$120,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the incremental revenue associated with the discount product line

First step is to calculate the lost revenue due to erosion

Lost revenue due to erosion=$1,500,000-$1,320,000

Lost revenue due to erosion=$180,000

Now let calculate the Incremental revenue

Using this formula

Incremental revenue=Discount line revenue -Lost revenue due to erosion

Let plug in the formula

Incremental revenue=$300,000-$180,000

Incremental revenue = $120,000

Therefore the incremental revenue associated with the discount product line is $120,000

3 0
3 years ago
A share of stock is now selling for $90. It will pay a dividend of $10 per share at the end of the year. Its beta is 1. What do
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

$96.20

Explanation:

A share of stock is now selling for $90. It will pay a dividend of $10 per share at the end of the year. Its beta is 1. What do investors expect the stock to sell for at the end of the year? Assume the risk-free rate is 4% and the expected rate of return on the market is 18%

Find complete question above:

The cost of equity=risk-free rate+beta*(market return-risk-free rate)

cost of equity=4%+1*(18%-4%)=18.00%

The price of the stock today is the present value of the price in a year's time and the expected dividend.

Share price today=(dividend+future share price)/(1+r)^n

share price today=$90

dividend=$10

future share price is the unknown

r=18%

n=1( 1 year from now)

90=(10+FP)/(1+18%)^1

90=(10+FP)/1.18

90*1.18=10+FP

FVP=(90*1.18)-10=$96.20  

8 0
3 years ago
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