There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
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−
∞
,
∞
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Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
c.132
Step-by-step explanation:
so we are given the diameter which is 42m **the diameter is the straight line that passes through the middle of the circle**
but in order to find the circumference we need to find the radius **the radius is always half (1/2,0.5) of the diameter**
so we have to divide 42/2 which equals 21
now we need to set up the formula;
c=2πr/c=2xπxr **when unknown variables such as 'r' are next to another mathematical numeral such as the pi symbol you don't really have to but the multiplication symbol between them**
c=2π21
=131.946891451
and in your case, it seems we must round to the tenths place so the nine then "becomes a ten" and you're left with 132
good luck :)
i hope this helps
have a good one !!
Answer:
2(x+4)/(x+3)(x-4)(x+4) and 1(x+3)/(x+3)(x-4)(x+4)
Step-by-step explanation:
Factor x^2-x-12: (x+3)(x-4)
Factor x^2-16: (x+4)(x-4)
So, LCD would be (x+3)(x-4)(x+4)
Rewritten: 2(x+4)/(x+3)(x-4)(x+4) and 1(x+3)/(x+3)(x-4)(x+4)
I hope this helped and have a good rest of your day!
