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4 years ago

7

A half-dollar is worth 50 cents. how many half-dollar coins equal one doller

2 answers:

Otrada [13]4 years ago

6 0

If 50 cents = 0.5 dollars . 1 divided by 0.5 is 2 therefor it will mean that 2 x 50 cents = 1 dollar

igomit [66]4 years ago

5 0

If one is 50 cents, then to get to one dollar we need 2 of those. also, one dollar equals 100 cents, and 50+50=100, so then the answer would be that you need to have 2 coins of the half-dollar to get to 1 dollar. i hope that this helps you, have a great day! =)

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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4 years ago

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steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

There is a significant difference between the two proportions.

Step-by-step explanation:

The (1 - <em>α</em>)% confidence interval for difference between population proportions is:

$CI=(\hat p_{1}-\hat p_{2})\pm z_{\alpha/2}\times\sqrt{\frac{\hat p_{1}(1-\hat p_{1})}{n_{1}}+\frac{\hat p_{2}(1-\hat p_{2})}{n_{2}}}$

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$\hat p_{1}=\frac{80}{250}=0.32\\\\\hat p_{2}=\frac{40}{175}=0.23$

The critical value of <em>z</em> for 90% confidence interval is:

$z_{0.10/2}=z_{0.05}=1.645$

Compute a 90% confidence interval for the difference between the proportions of women in these two fields of engineering as follows:

$CI=(\hat p_{1}-\hat p_{2})\pm z_{\alpha/2}\times\sqrt{\frac{\hat p_{1}(1-\hat p_{1})}{n_{1}}+\frac{\hat p_{2}(1-\hat p_{2})}{n_{2}}}$

$=(0.32-0.23)\pm 1.645\times\sqrt{\frac{0.32(1-0.32)}{250}+\frac{0.23(1-0.23)}{175}}\\\\=0.09\pm 0.0714\\\\=(0.0186, 0.1614)\\\\\approx (0.02, 0.16)$

There will be no difference between the two proportions if the 90% confidence interval consists of 0.

But the 90% confidence interval does not consists of 0.

Thus, there is a significant difference between the two proportions.

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3 years ago

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svetlana [45]

Answer:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers