Answer:
the exchange rate between two different currency is 6 pesos per dollar
Explanation:
The computation of the exchange rate between two different currency is
= Unit cost of spam in Wiknam ÷ unit cost of spam in Ectenia
= 24 pesos ÷ 4 dollars
= 6 pesos per dollar
hence, the exchange rate between two different currency is 6 pesos per dollar
We simply applied the above formula so that the currency rate could come
And, the same is to be applied
Answer:
a. Savers who lend money are willing to accept a lower minimum interest rate than potential savers who do not lend money.
b. Investment projects that are financed by savers have larger rates of return than projects that do not receive financing.
Explanation:
Loanable funds refer to the aggregate amount of money that all sectors, entities and individuals within an economy have decided to keep as an investment, instead of spending on personal consumption, by saving and giving them out as loans to borrowers.
The market for loanable funds is in equilibrium when the supply of loanable funds by the saver is equal to demand for loanable funds by the borrowers at a given interest rate.
When the market for loanable funds is in equilibrium, efficiency is maximized because projects that have higher rates of return are given priority to be funded first before the projects with lower rates of return are funded. The reason is that savers that have lowest costs of lending provides funds for the projects that have highest return rates in equilibrium. However, potential saver who do not lend money will prefer a higher interest rates.
Therefore, the correct options related to the two aspects of efficiency that the equilibrium of market for loanable funds exhibits are as follows:
a. Savers who lend money are willing to accept a lower minimum interest rate than potential savers who do not lend money.
b. Investment projects that are financed by savers have larger rates of return than projects that do not receive financing.
Answer:
4.96%
Explanation:
In order to determine the component after-tax cost of debt first we need to compute the before tax cost of debt by applying the RATE formula which is to be shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $1,155
Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2 = $41.25
NPER = 40 years × 2 = 80 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula
1. The pretax cost of debt is 3.54% × 2 = 7.08%
2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be
= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)
= 7.08% × ( 1 - 0.30)
= 4.96%
Answer:
“Should” or “should not” depend on the cost rate of the option and the risk appetite of investors.
Explanation:
An option is a contract that allows investors to buy or sell instruments such as security, Exchanged Traded Fund or an index at a pre-determined price over a certain period of time.
If the option will cost the investor an additional $10,000 and it is the cost for an option of $10 million investment, then it cost only 0.1% additionally, but it can secure the position of this investment; then the investor should buy this option.
Vice versa, if the additional $10,000 is much more than expected profit, and even lower but significantly drop down the total profit of an investment; and the investor always wish to have a high profit regardless high risk; then he shouldn’t buy this option.
Answer:
B. $42,000
Explanation:
Trade receivables refers total amounts that customers of a company are owing the company for goods or services sold to them.
For Michael Co., this can be calculated as follows:
Michael's total trade receivables = 3-month note due from Michael's main customer + Due and unpaid from this month's sales + Due and unpaid from last month's sales
Therefore, we have:
Michael's total trade receivables = $12,000 + $19,000 + 11,000 = $42,000.
Therefore, Michael's total trade receivables is $42,000.
