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tester [92]
3 years ago
11

If a new restaurant owner determines that she does not have sufficient funds to open a new location, where does this determinati

on belong in her SWOT analysis?
Business
1 answer:
luda_lava [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

This determination belongs to "W" in SWOT analysis.

Explanation:

SWOT is an analyzing technique of the organizations. It stands for Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, and Threats. Here, strength includes various resources in which the company is doing better whereas weaknesses include the inefficiency of the company. Opportunity refers to various other alternatives for the company and threat includes various possibilities or situations that can harm the company, for example, emerging competition. Therefore, we can say that not having sufficient funds is a part of “W” in the SWOT analysis.

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Using the data below, determine the ending inventory amount assuming the weighted average method under a periodic inventory syst
Lelechka [254]
The ending inventory amount is b. $1,200
5 0
3 years ago
Select the correct statement regarding managerial and financial accounting. Multiple Choice Timeliness is more important in fina
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

Financial accounting is more highly regulated than managerial accounting.

Explanation:

Financial accounting is highly regulated and follows laid down principles that must be followed. International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) and Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) are two examples of regulatory guidelines for financial accounting.

On the other hand managerial accounting is flexible and tailored to the manager's needs.

It must not follow the strict guidelines of financial accounting. This is because managerial accounting is used internally by a company and is not subject to public scrutiny.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ma Barker Company has a job-order costing system and uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply man
Sophie [7]

Answer:

Job 334 total cost:    $  8,400

Unit cost: 8,400 / 200 = $  42

Explanation:

Total cost: Material + Labor + Overhead

Material: 5,000

Labor:     2,400

<u></u>

<u>Overhead:</u>

\frac{Cost\: Of \:Manufacturing \:Overhead}{Cost \:Driver}= Overhead \:Rate

We distribute the expected cost over the expected base:

expected cost: 100,000

cost driver: 40,000 labor hours

cost per hour: 100,000 / 40,000 = <u>2.5 predetermined overhead</u>

Now we multiply this rate by the hours of the job to know Applied Overhead:

job labor hours x overhead rate:

Job #334 had 2,400 labor cost / $6 rate per hour = 400 hours

400 x 2.5 = 1,000

Total cost: 5,000 + 2,400 + 1,000 = 8,400

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an inconsistency of using market multiples to determine value? A) Using a market multiple assumes that
VikaD [51]

Answer:

B) Using a market multiple assumes that the target company is mispriced, while comparable companies are correctly priced.

Explanation:

Market Multiple, also known as trading multiples, is used to compare two financial measures, to determine the value of a company. It is another name for Price to Earnings Ratio (also called P/E Ratio).

Using the market multiple approach, investors can determine whether stocks in their portfolios will increase or decrease in price through the next term. Investors may then buy or sell stocks in order to maximize their expected gains calculated.

6 0
3 years ago
If the expected path of 1-year interest rates over the next five years is 2 percent, 4 percent, 1 percent, 4 percent, and 3 perc
timofeeve [1]

Answer:A) one year

Explanation: The unbiased expectations theory, also known as the expectation theory aims to estimate how much the short term interest rates will amount to in future. This is based on long term interest rates. Forward rates are used to predict the value of interests in the future based on the values calculated today. A maturity of 1 year has the lowest interest rate because it is not given enough time to grow. Interest rates tend to grow better over a longer period of time. Therefore in terms of expectation theory the longer the maturity the better the chances of interest rate growth.

6 0
3 years ago
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