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Ymorist [56]
3 years ago
12

Answer this question PLEASE ANSWER FAST!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nikitich [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

15\sqrt{3}

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I WILL GOVE YOU BRAINLIEST IF CORRECT YOU HAVE TO EXPLAIN WHY IT IS THO
Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

G

Step-by-step explanation:

If you do a common denominator of 30 for all of them

F would be 10/30

g would be 8/30

h would be 24/30

and j is obviously 14/30

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help me and i’ll mark you brainliest plus you get 20 points !!!!
Anton [14]

Answer:

Angle bisector

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the measure of the angle COA. By angle addition postulate,

m\angle COX=m\angle AOX+m\angle COA

From the diagram,

m\angle COX=80^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle AOX=40^{\circ},

then

80^{\circ}=m\angle COA+40^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle COA=80^{\circ}-40^{\circ}=40^{\circ}

Find the measure of the angle BOA. By angle addition postulate,

m\angle BOX=m\angle AOX+m\angle BOA

From the diagram,

m\angle BOX=60^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle AOX=40^{\circ},

then

60^{\circ}=m\angle BOA+40^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle BOA=60^{\circ}-40^{\circ}=20^{\circ}

Find the measure of the angle COB. By angle addition postulate,

m\angle COX=m\angle BOX+m\angle COB

From the diagram,

m\angle BOX=60^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle COX=80^{\circ},

then

80^{\circ}=m\angle COB+60^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle COB=80^{\circ}-60^{\circ}=20^{\circ}

This means, the measures of angles COB and BOA are the same and are equal half the measure of angle COA, so angles COB and BOA are congruent. This means, the ray OB is the angle bisector of angle COA

6 0
3 years ago
Use Stokes' Theorem to evaluate C F · dr where C is oriented counterclockwise as viewed from above. F(x, y, z) = 2yi + xzj + (x
Lady_Fox [76]

By Stokes' theorem, the line integral of \vec F over C is given by the surface integral of the curl of \vec F over S, where S is the region of intersection of the plane z=y+6 and the cylinder x^2+y^2=1 with S having positive/upward orientation.

Parameterize S by

\vec s(u,v)=u\cos v\,\vec\imath+u\sin v\,\vec\jmath+(u\sin v+6)\,\vec k

with 0\le u\le1 and 0\le v\le2\pi.

Take the normal vector to S to be

\vec s_u\times\vec s_v=-u\,\vec\jmath+u\,\vec k

The curl of \vec F is

\nabla\times\vec F(x,y,z)=(1-x)\,\vec\imath-\vec\jmath+(z-2)\,\vec k

Then the line integral is equivalent to

\displaystyle\int_C\vec F\cdot\mathrm d\vec r=\iint_S(\nabla\times\vec F)\cdot\mathrm d\vec S

=\displaystyle\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^1\bigg((1-u\cos v)\,\vec\imath-\vec\jmath+(u\sin v+4)\,\vec k\bigg)\cdot\bigg(-u\,\vec\jmath+u\,\vec k\bigg)\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv

=\displaystyle\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^1(5u+u^2\sin v)\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv=\boxed{5\pi}

4 0
3 years ago
What does x equal to​
AURORKA [14]
125 i believe i’m not sure
7 0
3 years ago
What is 960 divided by 8 long divison
Llana [10]
It is 120 because first 8 goes into 96 which is 12. just add the 0 since u cant do anything else and it’s 120.
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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