Answer:
The answer is in a perfect competition profit is maximized when marginal cost equal marginal revenue and price is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue, while in monopolist profit is maximized when marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue.
Explanation:
The firm in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker,the price in the market is determined by the market forces of demand and supply. The firm has to sell their product at the ruling market price.The demand curve facing the firm in perfectly competitive market is horizontal or perfectly elastic, profit is therefore maximized when the marginal cost is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue. The firm in the market operate at the output level in which the price and marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. Whatever prices that change the market demand or supply will change the demand curve faced by the firm.The firm cannot do anything to this than to accept the market price and the demand curve.
In a monopoly the demand curve is identical to the demand curve of the firm, because industry demand curve is downward sloping.The monopolist can either set the price or quantity not the two.when one is determined the value of the other will be determined by the demand function. The profit maximization of the monopolist also requires that marginal cost must be equal to marginal revenue just like in the case of perfect completion.when the monopolist equates MR and MC the monopolist determines its output and the market price for the product. The revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve,because the straight line is the market demand. The firm will have to reduce The price of the product if they want to sell more of their product the unit of the product sold is the AR which is equal to the price.Therefore the AR curve of the monopolist and the perfect competition MR and AR are both identical that informed the reason why the marginal revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve for a single price monopolist.
Answer:
$7,840
Explanation:
The inventory of Items A and B should be valued at the lower of cost and the net realizable value.
The cost is the invoice price at time of purchase ,while the net realizable value is the selling price less to sell
Products Cost Selling price cost to sell NRV unit value
A $18 $22 $6 $16 $16
B $48 $54 $4 $50 $48
Item A is valued at $16 each i.e $16*160=$2,560
Item B is valued at $48 each i.e $48*110=$5,280
total value of inventory =$7,840
The ending inventory valued at the lower of cost or net realizable value is worth $7,840
Answer:
Explanation:
Variance analysis studies the relationship between actual and budgeted cost for business activities. Variance analysis helps the management in two ways;
Favorable - if the actual cost incurred is less than the budgeted cost, the difference amount is a saving for the company.
Unfavorable - if the actual cost is more than the budgeted cost, the difference is an extra expenditure for the company.
Flexible budget;
- The flexible budget is prepared at different levels of volume that was initially projected by the master budget.
- It is highly styled and more useful than the master budget.
The report showing the Activity and Spending Variances for march is given in the file attached below, in other not to cause confusion. Thank you.
<span>Cross-sell is the practice of selling or suggesting related or complementary products to a prospect or customer. Cross selling is one of the easiest and most effective methods of marketing.</span>
Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
