That is true because has most likely asked for higher than the offer.
Answer:
Overhead costs are often affected by many issues and are frequently too complex to be explained by any one factor.
Explanation:
An overhead cost is not directly defined, to be that of material, or labor, or any other unit, overhead include, many factors, electricity usage, machine hours usage, water usage, or the capacity utilization of machinery, and various other factors. Since its computation and allocation is not clear many a times, a single overhead like that of electricity, has many factors, ideal usage of electricity, or machine hours used in production or simply the total cost of overheads for that month or building or etc: and its utilization. In short, to conclude we can state that overhead costs are complex in nature.
All other options are false.
Final Answer
Overhead costs are often affected by many issues and are frequently too complex to be explained by any one factor.
Answer and Explanation:
D. n = AP Statistics Semester 2
The study of an agent's or individual's decisions is known as decision theory. The official decision-making process concludes with evaluation. Evaluating the consequences may assist the decision-maker in learning lessons that will help her make better decisions in the future.
- Loss aversion is the correct answer because the general notion of the "loss-aversion" theory is that if an individual is provided with two equal alternatives, one of which is presented in terms of prospective profits and the other in terms of potential losses, the former option will be chosen.
- Loss aversion is a cognitive bias or psychological phenomenon that explains why the agony of losing is twice as powerful psychologically as the pleasure of winning.
Therefore, representativeness, cognitive bias, and overconfidence are not factors relative to an arbitrary decision distortion. So, Loss aversion is the correct response to the question.
For more information regarding arbitrary baseline, refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/11224360
Answer:
WACC 10.42614%
Explanation:
<u>First we use CAPM to solve for the cost of equity</u>
risk free 0.04
market rate
premium market (market rate - risk free) 0.08
beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.1
Ke 0.12800
Then we calculate the WACC (weighted average cost of capital)
D 80,000 bonsd x 1,000 = 80,000,000
E 4,000,000 shares x 40 = 160,000,000
E+ D 80,000,000 + 160,000,000 = 240,000,000
equity weight: 2/3
liability weight: 1/3
Ke 0.128
Equity weight 0.6667
Kd 0.086
Debt Weight 0.3334
t 0.34
WACC 10.42614%
