I'd go with A or C. Definitely not B or D.
B is the right answer I did that last week and had to study it
Hello, the answer to this question is A, hope this helps!
This is because in the "U.S.A.", people in all the regions in the U.S.A. historically migrated throughout an "entire land mass" (essentially) ; and this "land mass" tends to be more "homogeneous" (as opposed to "British English" speakers; who speak with different dialects, accents). Note that the United Kingdom, including Great Britain, is further isolated from the U.S.A.—by a huge ocean— than the "relatively more homogeneous physical region"/ and thus the "relatively more linguistic region".
Answer:
these is your answer.
Explanation:
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