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Firdavs [7]
3 years ago
5

Franklin corporation is comparing two different capital structures, an all equity plan (plan 1) and a levered plan (plan 2). Und

er plan 1, the company would have 315,000 shares of stock outstanding. Under plan 2, there would be 225,000 shares outstanding and $4.14 million in debt outstanding. The interest rate on the debt is 10 percent and there are no taxes.
A)If EBIT is $750,000, which plan will result in the highest EPS?

B)What is the break even EBIT?
Business
1 answer:
strojnjashka [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

All equity firm will get 2.38 EPS while leverage firm 1.49

Break Even EBIT 1,449,000

Explanation:

EBIT 750,000

interest rate 10%

(there are no taxes thus, we do not make the distinction between after and pre-tax cost of debt)

4,140,000 x 0.1 = 414,000  interest expense

net income 336,000

outstanding shares 225,000

EPS = \frac{income-}{outstanding \: common \: stock}

EPS 1.49333

All equty: 750,000 / 315,000 = 2,38

Break Even EBIT:

The point at which is indiferent to be equity or levered firm:

Levered Firm EPS = Equity Firm EPS

(EBIT - 414,000)/225,000 = EBIT / 315,000\\EBIT/225,000 -414,000/225,000 =  EBIT/315,000\\EBIT/225,000 - EBIT/315,000  =  414,000/225,000\\EBIT = 1.84 / (1/225,000 - 1/315,000)\\

Break Even EBIT 1,449,000

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Check #1111 for $19.72, check #1112 for $9.50, and check #1113 for $35.00 have not cleared the bank. what is the total amount of
andreev551 [17]
19.72
9.50
+ 35.00
$ 64.22 total outstanding checks
3 0
3 years ago
You deposit $1,100 at the end of each year into an account paying 9.1 percent interest.
vlabodo [156]

Answer:

a.

The money that we will have in account is $51156.41

b.

The money that we will have in account is $318808.31

Explanation:

a.

The deposits made in the account represent an annuity pattern as the deposits made are of a constant amount, are made after equal interval of time and are for a defined time period. Thus, to calculate the value of money that we will have after 19 years, we will use the formula for the future value of annuity.

The formula for the future value of annuity is attached.

FV = 1100 * [ (1+0.091)^19 - 1 / 0.091 ]

FV = $51156.41178

b.

The same formula for the future value of annuity will be used and we will change n from 19 to 38.

FV = 1100 * [ (1+0.091)^38 - 1 / 0.091 ]

FV = $318808.3149

5 0
3 years ago
Explain why the order of operations is necessary for simplifying numerical expressions
Musya8 [376]
The order of operations is necessary for simplifying numerical expressions because it ensures that the expression is simplified correctly through a series of steps proven to be efficient in simplification.
3 0
3 years ago
your firm is contemplating the purchase of a new $545,000 computer-based order entry system. the system will be depreciated stra
liberstina [14]

The IRR of the new computer-based order entry system is 22.87%.

<h3>What is the IRR?</h3>

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

The cash flow at the beginning of the period = purchase price of the system - reduction in working capital

$545,000 - $96,000 = $449,000

Depreciation expense = (cost of the asset - salvage value) / useful life

($545,000 - 0) / 5 = $109,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 5 = (amount saved - depreciation)(1 - taxes) + depreciation

($165,000 - $109,00)(1 - 0.22) + $109,000 = $152,680

Terminal cash flow = Salvage value - (tax x salvage value)

$71,000 - (0.22 x 71,000) = $55,380

IRR can be determined using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 = $-449,000

Cash flow in year 1 - 4= $152,680

Cash flow in year 5 = $152,680 + $55,380 = 208,060

IRR = 22.87%

To learn more about IRR, please check: brainly.com/question/26484024

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
On January 10, Chen Co. issued an $80,000, 6%, 90-day note payable to Rao Co. Using a 360-day year, what is the total interest e
Yanka [14]

Answer:

d. $1,200

Explanation:

The computation of the interest expense is shown below:

= Principal × rate of interest × number of days ÷ (total number of days in a year)

= $80,000× 6% × (90 days ÷ 360 days)

= $1,200

We simply apply the simple interest formula

Since the number of days and the total number of days are given so we considered the same for the computation part.

4 0
3 years ago
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