Answer: $3,875 Favorable
Explanation: We can compute direct labor efficiency variance by using following formula :-
Direct labor efficiency variance = standard rate ( actual hours - standard hours)
where,
standard hours = 5,500units * 0.5 hour = 2750 hours
actual hours = 3,000 hours
standard rate = $15.5
putting the values into equation we get :-
Direct labor efficiency variance = $15.5 ( 3,000 - 2750)
= $3,875 Favorable
Answer:
The answer is D. Activity attributes
Explanation:
Activity attributes are descriptive components of an activity. Examples of these attributes include; activity name, description and responsible person.
Answer:
The retained earning would be debited by ($60,000)
Explanation:
According to the given data we have the following:
Number of shares outstanding=60,000
par value of $5 per share
stock dividend declared=cc
Therefore, to calculate the amount either (debited) or credited to retained earnings we would have to make the followin calculation:
Dividend value=Number of shares outstanding×par value of $5 per share×stock dividend declared
Dividend value=60,000×$5×20%
Dividend value=($60,000)
Therefore, as the dividend paid reduces retained earnings, the retained earning would be debited by ($60,000)
Answer:
The arbitrageur should borrow money at 4% per annum since it is cheaper than paying the forward price for delivery
Explanation:
Current price of gold=$1,400 per ounce
Forward price=$1,500
The arbitrageur can either pay the forward price or borrow $1400 and pay the interest of 4% in a year. Consider option 1 paying the forward price of 1500
Option 1
Since there are no additional costs, the total cost for buying the gold=forward price=$1,500
Option 2
If the arbitrageur borrows the 1400 to pay for the gold now, then pay the interest in 1 year;
The total cost=Amount borrowed+interest accrued in 1 year
Total cost=1400+(4%×1400)
1400+((4/100)×1400)
1400+56=$1456
Since there are no additional costs, option 2=$1456
If we compare option 1 to option 2, we notice that option 2 is slightly cheaper than option 1 by $44
(Option 1-Option 2)=(1500-1456)=$44
The arbitrageur should borrow money at 4% per annum since it is cheaper than paying the forward price for delivery
Answer:
d. hostile takeover; tender offer
Explanation:
The hostile takeover is the transaction of the merger in which the management of the firm i.e. targeted would not support and acquirer could attempt to gain the control for purchasing the enough shares. And this could be achieved via a tender offer
Therefore as per the given situation, the option d is correct
hence, the same is to be considered
